Monthly Archives: December 2020

JUST ASKING / CURIOUS QUESTIONS, Why did Jesus spit when healing certain people?

Why did Jesus spit when healing certain people?

WHY DID JESUS SPIT WHEN HEALING CERTAIN PEOPLE?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Strangely, the Holy Spirit in the Scriptures thrice mentioned the Lord Jesus Christ spitting in conjunction with performing healing miracles. What is the significance?

THE DEAF AND SPEECH-INHIBITED MAN OF MARK CHAPTER 7

“[31] And again, departing from the coasts of Tyre and Sidon, he came unto the sea of Galilee, through the midst of the coasts of Decapolis. [32] And they bring unto him one that was deaf, and had an impediment in his speech; and they beseech him to put his hand upon him. [33] And he took him aside from the multitude, and put his fingers into his ears, and he spit, and touched his tongue; [34] And looking up to heaven, he sighed, and saith unto him, Ephphatha, that is, Be opened. [35] And straightway his ears were opened, and the string of his tongue was loosed, and he spake plain.”

Listening to these verses, we understand this poor man was both unable to hear and speak properly. However, the Lord Jesus healed him… in a most bizarre way. He spit on His finger and then touched the man’s tongue! While we find that rather disgusting, that was the way Jesus chose to cure him. Why? If we come to appreciate more about saliva, we can get a better understanding of Jesus’ procedure. Approximately 99 percent of saliva is simply water. (The other one percent is made of various enzymes and proteins that aid in tasting and digesting food, and protecting from tooth decay.) The man’s tongue is functionally dead. In Scripture, water symbolizes life (see Revelation 21:6; Revelation 22:1,17). Thus, one way to look at the Lord’s behavior here is Him imparting water/life to the man’s tongue.

Moreover, saliva lubricates our tongue and lips to facilitate our speech. We can also see Christ as moistening the man’s mouth, making it easier for him to talk for the first time in who knows how long! What is being demonstrated here? Israel, now converted from Satan, can speak forth God’s Word to evangelize the Gentiles in the Millennial Kingdom (see Zechariah 8:20-23, for example).

THE BLIND MAN OF MARK CHAPTER 8

“[22] And he cometh to Bethsaida; and they bring a blind man unto him, and besought him to touch him. [23] And he took the blind man by the hand, and led him out of the town; and when he had spit on his eyes, and put his hands upon him, he asked him if he saw ought. [24] And he looked up, and said, I see men as trees, walking. [25] After that he put his hands again upon his eyes, and made him look up: and he was restored, and saw every man clearly.”

As we can see, Christ again employed spitting as a method of healing. This time, He ministers to a man who was blind. (Regarding the “double healing” here, see our related article linked at the end of this study.) Why did He spit on the man’s eyes? Recall our earlier comments as touching the miracle in chapter 7. These eyes are functionally dead. If they are to work as the Creator intended, He must intervene by imparting life and lubrication (saliva) to them. He does just that, thereby showing Israel how He can restore them to see spiritual truths clearly (for instance, see Isaiah 9:2; Isaiah 29:18; and Isaiah 42:6-7,16).

THE BLIND MAN OF JOHN CHAPTER 9

“[1] And as Jesus passed by, he saw a man which was blind from his birth. [2] And his disciples asked him, saying, Master, who did sin, this man, or his parents, that he was born blind? [3] Jesus answered, Neither hath this man sinned, nor his parents: but that the works of God should be made manifest in him. [4] I must work the works of him that sent me, while it is day: the night cometh, when no man can work. [5] As long as I am in the world, I am the light of the world. [6] When he had thus spoken, he spat on the ground, and made clay of the spittle, and he anointed the eyes of the blind man with the clay, [7] And said unto him, Go, wash in the pool of Siloam, (which is by interpretation, Sent.) He went his way therefore, and washed, and came seeing.”

The Lord Jesus cured this blind man by first spitting on the ground, mixing His saliva with the clay/soil, and then placing this concoction directly onto the man’s eyes. Finally, He sent the man to wash in the pool of Siloam. The man returned with his sight! What we want to see here is Jesus’ spit (life) was again instrumental in restoring organs that were functionally dead. The washing with water rinsed away the dirt and spit. You can see verses 10-15 for additional information. Israel is granted spiritual sight, free from the blindness of sin and Satan!

SUPPLEMENTAL: AN INVITATION TO JUSTIFICATION

As the Lord Jesus Christ was compassionate toward these disabled men, so He is merciful even now toward the entire world. Billions of souls are still spiritually blind, deaf, and speech-inhibited. Deceived by the evil world system, they cannot see, hear, or speak the simple Gospel of the Grace of God. Yet, we can and will! “Christ died for our sins, He was buried, and He rose again the third day” (1 Corinthians 15:3-4). Just like the Lord imparted physical health to the disabled, so He offers to graciously provide us with spiritual health. On Calvary’s cruel cross, He took upon Himself the penalty for our sins. He suffered as our substitute, that we not pay for our sins forever in Hell and the Lake of Fire. “For he [God the Father] hath made him [God the Son] to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him” (2 Corinthians 5:21).

Romans 3:19-28: “[19] Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God. [20] Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin. [21] But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; [22] Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference: [23] For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God; [24] Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: [25] Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; [26] To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus. [27] Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith. [28] Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.”

Romans 4:1-5: “[1] What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found? [2] For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God. [3] For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness. [4] Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt. [5] But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.”

Acts 16:30-31: “[30] And brought them out, and said, Sirs, what must I do to be saved? [31] And they said, Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house.” Here is how we have the spit (life) of Christ applied to our account!

NOTE: Saints, this is Bible Q&A #795, our final article of 2020. We have now closed seven complete years of “For What Saith the Scriptures?” Lord willing, we will be back next year with another round of 100-plus studies! See you then! 🙂

Also see:
» Why did Christ need to heal the man in Mark 8 twice?
» If only I saw a miracle…?
» Why did Jesus offer Himself to Israel if He knew they would reject Him?

Miscellaneous

Who were the “seventy” whom Christ sent out?

WHO WERE THE “SEVENTY” WHOM CHRIST SENT OUT?

by Shawn Brasseaux

We read about these 70 special Messianic Jews only in chapter 10 of Luke. The Lord Jesus Christ commissioned them during the last six months of earthly ministry.

Read the Bible for yourself: “[1] After these things the Lord appointed other seventy also, and sent them two and two before his face into every city and place, whither he himself would come. [2] Therefore said he unto them, The harvest truly is great, but the labourers are few: pray ye therefore the Lord of the harvest, that he would send forth labourers into his harvest. [3] Go your ways: behold, I send you forth as lambs among wolves. [4] Carry neither purse, nor scrip, nor shoes: and salute no man by the way. [5] And into whatsoever house ye enter, first say, Peace be to this house. [6] And if the son of peace be there, your peace shall rest upon it: if not, it shall turn to you again. [7] And in the same house remain, eating and drinking such things as they give: for the labourer is worthy of his hire. Go not from house to house. [8] And into whatsoever city ye enter, and they receive you, eat such things as are set before you: [9] And heal the sick that are therein, and say unto them, The kingdom of God is come nigh unto you.

“[10] But into whatsoever city ye enter, and they receive you not, go your ways out into the streets of the same, and say, [11] Even the very dust of your city, which cleaveth on us, we do wipe off against you: notwithstanding be ye sure of this, that the kingdom of God is come nigh unto you. [12] But I say unto you, that it shall be more tolerable in that day for Sodom, than for that city. [13] Woe unto thee, Chorazin! woe unto thee, Bethsaida! for if the mighty works had been done in Tyre and Sidon, which have been done in you, they had a great while ago repented, sitting in sackcloth and ashes. [14] But it shall be more tolerable for Tyre and Sidon at the judgment, than for you. [15] And thou, Capernaum, which art exalted to heaven, shalt be thrust down to hell. [16] He that heareth you heareth me; and he that despiseth you despiseth me; and he that despiseth me despiseth him that sent me.

“[17] And the seventy returned again with joy, saying, Lord, even the devils are subject unto us through thy name. [18] And he said unto them, I beheld Satan as lightning fall from heaven. [19] Behold, I give unto you power to tread on serpents and scorpions, and over all the power of the enemy: and nothing shall by any means hurt you. [20] Notwithstanding in this rejoice not, that the spirits are subject unto you; but rather rejoice, because your names are written in heaven.”

While similar to the 12 Apostles, these 70 men are not to be confused with them. For example, carefully compare Matthew 10:1-42, Mark 3:14-19, Mark 6:7-13, Luke 9:1-6, and Luke 10:1-20. Both the 12 Apostles and the 70 were commissioned to preach the Gospel of the Kingdom in Israel’s cities, confirming that message with the two Kingdom miracles—that is, healing the sick and casting out devils. What makes the 70 unique, however, is Jesus sent them in pairs to cities and towns before He visited those areas. They were to prepare the people for His arrival. After their first and only appearance (Luke chapter 10), these 70 preachers drop off from the pages of Scripture. Consequently, we do not know what ultimately happened to them.

Also see:
» Who were “the sons of the prophets?”
» Was an apostle merely one who had seen Christ’s resurrection?
» Who were the people who followed Jesus before Paul?

“For such an high priest became us?”, BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, THE NATION ISRAEL

“For such an high priest became us?”

“FOR SUCH AN HIGH PRIEST BECAME US?”

by Shawn Brasseaux

“For such an high priest became us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and made higher than the heavens;…” (Hebrews 7:26). Is that proper grammar? “For such an high priest became us?”

It is not to say we became a high priest. This would be utter nonsense… even more so when we consider the adjectives in the verse in no way apply to us. It should be understood in the sense of “he is a high priest appropriate/suitable/proper for us.” The Lord Jesus Christ can meet all our needs: He is everything we are not, and He has everything we do not have but need. Therefore, He is fitting—and, in this context, it is His ministry as Israel’s High Priest. You can read Hebrews 4:14–10:39 for all the details.

Our King James translators rendered this Greek word (“prepo”) in six other verses, all carrying the same meaning:

  • Matthew 3:15: “And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh [is proper, suitable for] us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.”
  • 1 Corinthians 11:13: “Judge in yourselves: is it comely [proper, suitable] that a woman pray unto God uncovered?”
  • Ephesians 5:3: “But fornication, and all uncleanness, or covetousness, let it not be once named among you, as becometh [is proper, suitable for] saints;….”
  • 1 Timothy 2:10: “But (which becometh [is proper, suitable for] women professing godliness) with good works.”
  • Titus 2:1: “But speak thou the things which become [is proper, suitable for] sound doctrine:….”
  • Hebrews 2:10: “For it became [is proper, suitable for] him, for whom are all things, and by whom are all things, in bringing many sons unto glory, to make the captain of their salvation perfect through sufferings.”

Also see:
» Why was the Temple’s veil rent when Christ died?
» How was there healing in touching Jesus’ garment hem?
» Can you explain Luke 18:13, “God be merciful to me a sinner?”

DENOMINATIONS, CULTS, & FALSE TEACHING, Was Jesus a gluttonous drunkard?

Was Jesus a gluttonous drunkard?

WAS JESUS A GLUTTONOUS DRUNKARD?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Matthew 11:16-19: “[16] But whereunto shall I liken this generation? It is like unto children sitting in the markets, and calling unto their fellows, [17] And saying, We have piped unto you, and ye have not danced; we have mourned unto you, and ye have not lamented. [18] For John came neither eating nor drinking, and they say, He hath a devil. [19] The Son of man came eating and drinking, and they say, Behold a man gluttonous, and a winebibber, a friend of publicans and sinners. But wisdom is justified of her children.”

Luke 7:31-35: “[31] And the Lord said, Whereunto then shall I liken the men of this generation? and to what are they like? [32] They are like unto children sitting in the marketplace, and calling one to another, and saying, We have piped unto you, and ye have not danced; we have mourned to you, and ye have not wept. [33] For John the Baptist came neither eating bread nor drinking wine; and ye say, He hath a devil. [34] The Son of man is come eating and drinking; and ye say, Behold a gluttonous man, and a winebibber, a friend of publicans and sinners! [35] But wisdom is justified of all her children.”

On the basis of Matthew 11:19 and Luke 7:34, it has been argued Jesus was a sinner. Indeed, strangely, some “Christian” (!) people who use the Bible have gone so far as to say the Lord was actually a glutton and a drunkard! Are they correctly interpreting these passages? We have three reasons to believe the Lord Jesus Christ was neither a glutton nor a drunkard.

1. DOES THE SAVIOUR NEED A SAVIOUR?

Firstly, if we are willing to accept as factual that Christ was a glutton (one who excessively greedily eats) and a drunkard (one who is habitually intoxicated with alcoholic beverages), then the Saviour Himself had a sin problem. If the Saviour is also guilty of wrongdoing, then He Himself needs saving. Therefore, where is His Saviour? In fact, can a sinning Saviour even adequately pay for others’ sins? If Jesus Christ were a sinner, then He was really no different from the rest of us, and the entire premise for Christianity is reduced to nothing. Could we then even call ourselves “Christians?!”

2. IS THE BIBLE DISHONEST?

Secondly, if we are willing to accept as factual that Christ was a glutton and a drunkard, then the Bible record is not true in several verses when it speaks of Christ’s impeccability or faultlessness.

“And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased” (Matthew 3:17). “Behold my servant, whom I have chosen; my beloved, in whom my soul is well pleased: I will put my spirit upon him, and he shall shew judgment to the Gentiles” (Matthew 12:18). “While he yet spake, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them: and behold a voice out of the cloud, which said, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased; hear ye him” (Matthew 17:5). “And there came a voice from heaven, saying, Thou art my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased” (Mark 1:11). “And the Holy Ghost descended in a bodily shape like a dove upon him, and a voice came from heaven, which said, Thou art my beloved Son; in thee I am well pleased” (Luke 3:22). “And he that sent me is with me: the Father hath not left me alone; for I do always those things that please him” (John 8:29). How can Jesus—a supposed glutton and drunkard—be so highly praised here? If we cannot trust these verses, then what in the Bible can we trust? Why do we use the Scriptures at all?

The Bible speaks of drunkenness and gluttony (greediness of food) in a negative light. For instance, Deuteronomy 21:18-23: “[18] If a man have a stubborn and rebellious son, which will not obey the voice of his father, or the voice of his mother, and that, when they have chastened him, will not hearken unto them: [19] Then shall his father and his mother lay hold on him, and bring him out unto the elders of his city, and unto the gate of his place; [20] And they shall say unto the elders of his city, This our son is stubborn and rebellious, he will not obey our voice; he is a glutton, and a drunkard. [21] And all the men of his city shall stone him with stones, that he die: so shalt thou put evil away from among you; and all Israel shall hear, and fear. [22] And if a man have committed a sin worthy of death, and he be to be put to death, and thou hang him on a tree: [23] His body shall not remain all night upon the tree, but thou shalt in any wise bury him that day; (for he that is hanged is accursed of God; ) that thy land be not defiled, which the LORD thy God giveth thee for an inheritance.”

“For the drunkard and the glutton shall come to poverty: and drowsiness shall clothe a man with rags” (Proverbs 23:21). “Let us walk honestly, as in the day; not in rioting and drunkenness, not in chambering and wantonness, not in strife and envying” (Romans 13:13). “Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God” (1 Corinthians 6:10). “Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are these:… Envyings, murders, drunkenness, revellings, and such like: of the which I tell you before, as I have also told you in time past, that they which do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God” (Galatians 5:19,21). “And be not drunk with wine, wherein is excess; but be filled with the Spirit;…” (Ephesians 5:18).

How could Father God endorse a “gluttonous, drunkard” Jesus? Evidently, Jesus was neither a glutton nor a drunkard, for the Scriptures report: “For he [Father God] hath made him [Christ] to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him” (2 Corinthians 5:21). First Peter 2:22 alleges Jesus “did no sin.” Also, Hebrews 7:26: “For such an high priest became us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and made higher than the heavens;….” The only way Christ could be “separate from sinners” is if He Himself were not a sinner! Of course, that is if we believe the Bible and apply a bit of common sense. If we do not believe the Bible, then we need to say it instead of pretending like we do.

3. WAS JOHN THE BAPTIST DEVIL-POSSESSED?

Thirdly, if we are willing to accept as factual that Christ was a glutton and a drunkard, then we are also forced to conclude John the Baptist was devil-possessed. After all, the same parties who accused Jesus of evildoing similarly faulted John for being under Satan’s control!

“For John came neither eating nor drinking, and they say, He hath a devil. The Son of man came eating and drinking, and they say, Behold a man gluttonous, and a winebibber, a friend of publicans and sinners” (Matthew 11:18-19). “For John the Baptist came neither eating bread nor drinking wine; and ye say, He hath a devil. The Son of man is come eating and drinking; and ye say, Behold a gluttonous man, and a winebibber, a friend of publicans and sinners!” (Luke 7:33-34).

Read from Luke chapter 1: “[13] But the angel said unto him, Fear not, Zacharias: for thy prayer is heard; and thy wife Elisabeth shall bear thee a son, and thou shalt call his name John. [14] And thou shalt have joy and gladness; and many shall rejoice at his birth. [15] For he shall be great in the sight of the Lord, and shall drink neither wine nor strong drink; and he shall be filled with the Holy Ghost, even from his mother’s womb. [16] And many of the children of Israel shall he turn to the Lord their God. [17] And he shall go before him in the spirit and power of Elias, to turn the hearts of the fathers to the children, and the disobedient to the wisdom of the just; to make ready a people prepared for the Lord.” This is hardly the description of a man possessed with a devil! As opposed to John the Baptist being filled with an unclean spirit, he was controlled by the Holy Spirit. He was devil-possessed to the extent Jesus was a gluttonous drunkard. Both instances are a resounding to no extent whatsoever.

CONCLUSION

Re-read Matthew 11:16-19 and Luke 7:31-35. John and Jesus’ critics cannot be pleased. They are mocking both John and Jesus, exaggerating and slandering to scorn. No matter the preacher, Israel is totally unresponsive, refusing to convert to JEHOVAH God. The Jews do not want John’s ministry, and they do not want Jesus’ ministry. John lived out in the wilderness and had a meager or simple diet of locusts and wild honey (Matthew 3:1-4; Mark 1:4-6), but they falsely accused him of devil possession. This is an extreme charge. Now, look at the contrast, the other extreme. Jesus ate and drank with the public, but they erroneously charged Him with gluttony and drunkenness. Both allegations are patently false. John and Jesus are both misrepresented, distorted, and defamed. These are unsubstantiated or baseless charges. To say it more bluntly, they are flat-out lies!

It is not that the Lord Jesus condoned sin, or joined people in their commission of sin. Rather, He understood these were the very souls He had come to save (cf. Matthew 9:10-13 and Mark 2:15-17). Moreover, they were willing to acknowledge their sin problem and value Him as Saviour, whereas the religious snobs (Pharisees, Sadducees, scribes) believed they were “good enough” and had no need for a Saviour. Religious elitists belittled Jesus simply to alienate people from Him, that they (the leaders) keep their position in the nation. The Bible is indeed true. However, it does quote sinners when they lie. The Scriptures are a factual representation of what was said, whether or not the statement itself was true. People made fun of the Lord then, and they do it now. They lied about Him then, just like people do today. These passages are a case-in-point that we should be very careful before grabbing verses out of context and distorting them unto our own destruction (2 Peter 3:16).

By contending this point, people may very well be sneakily attempting to justify their own sin. Namely, “If Jesus was a glutton and drunkard, I can be those things too!” Whatever their reason for appealing to Matthew 11:19 and Luke 7:34, they falsely malign Him, and we would hate to be in their position if they die as lost people and face Father God. They are guilty of blasphemy, and we remember those solemn words of Christ as found in Matthew chapter 12: “[34] O generation of vipers, how can ye, being evil, speak good things? for out of the abundance of the heart the mouth speaketh. [35] A good man out of the good treasure of the heart bringeth forth good things: and an evil man out of the evil treasure bringeth forth evil things. [36] But I say unto you, That every idle word that men shall speak, they shall give account thereof in the day of judgment. [37] For by thy words thou shalt be justified, and by thy words thou shalt be condemned.”

Friends, let us choose our words wisely—especially when speaking about the Lord Jesus Christ!

Also see:
» How was there healing in touching Jesus’ garment hem?
» Why did John the Baptist behave so strangely?
» Are denominationalists deliberately lying?

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, CHARISMATIC MOVEMENT, THE NATION ISRAEL, Why did Christ need to heal that blind man twice?

Why did Christ need to heal that blind man twice?

WHY DID CHRIST NEED TO HEAL THAT BLIND MAN TWICE?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Let us first read the passage, Mark 8:22-26, and then we can expound it: “[22] And he [the Lord Jesus Christ] cometh to Bethsaida; and they bring a blind man unto him, and besought him to touch him. [23] And he took the blind man by the hand, and led him out of the town; and when he had spit on his eyes, and put his hands upon him, he asked him if he saw ought. [24] And he looked up, and said, I see men as trees, walking. [25] After that he put his hands again upon his eyes, and made him look up: and he was restored, and saw every man clearly. [26] And he sent him away to his house, saying, Neither go into the town, nor tell it to any in the town.”

Doubtless, this strange miracle has puzzled many Bible readers. However, if we look at it in context, and remember to approach it dispensationally (2 Timothy 2:15), we need not stumble over it. Like the healing of the deaf and speech-inhibited man (Mark 7:31-37), this passage is unique to Mark. It is found nowhere else in Scripture. The miracle occurred in the area of “Bethsaida,” near the northernmost tip of the Sea of Galilee. People bring a blind man and ask Jesus to recover his sight. The Lord agrees to perform the miracle, but does so in secret. Firstly, He grabs the man’s hand and directs him away from Bethsaida. Secondly, after healing him, He forbids the man to enter the town or share the news therein. Why are privacy and silence so important here?

What is unexpected is the fact the miracle here in Mark chapter 8 was performed in stages. Jesus spits on his eyes and touches him, but his vision is only partially recovered. The man confesses, “I see men as trees, walking.” His eyesight is still quite poor, so Jesus places His hands on the man’s eyes a second time. “He was restored, and saw every man clearly.” Once again, we remind ourselves Jesus sends the man to his house, ordering him not to enter Bethsaida or tell anyone in the town about that miracle.

Let us deal with the issue of concealment first. Several months earlier, Jesus had pronounced judgment on Bethsaida for its obstinate refusal to believe on Him. Despite His many miracles in their midst, they remained in unbelief! See Matthew chapter 11: “[20] Then began he to upbraid the cities wherein most of his mighty works were done, because they repented not: [21] Woe unto thee, Chorazin! woe unto thee, Bethsaida! for if the mighty works, which were done in you, had been done in Tyre and Sidon, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes. [22] But I say unto you, It shall be more tolerable for Tyre and Sidon at the day of judgment, than for you. [23] And thou, Capernaum, which art exalted unto heaven, shalt be brought down to hell: for if the mighty works, which have been done in thee, had been done in Sodom, it would have remained until this day. [24] But I say unto you, That it shall be more tolerable for the land of Sodom in the day of judgment, than for thee.”

By the time of Mark chapter 8, the Lord has already given Bethsaida over to spiritual darkness. Consequently: (1) He does not minister in the city, (2) He insists the man be healed outside the town, (2) He directs the man not to return to the city, and (4) He orders him not to share the news of his healing with the town.

Now, we address it being a double miracle. Oddly, Jesus performed this bodily healing in phases—as opposed to His normal instant cures (Matthew 8:3; Matthew 20:34; Mark 1:31,42; Mark 2:12; Mark 10:52; Luke 4:39; Luke 5:13,25; Luke 8:44,47; Luke 13:13; Luke 18:43; John 5:9). One “faith healer” used Mark 8:22-26 against this writer to defend the gradual “healings” in religion today. However, this miracle is the exception as opposed to the norm. The God of the Bible can and did perform miracles immediately. Yet, Jesus needed to touch the blind man twice for him to see perfectly. Why?

This is not the disciples’ gradual enlightenment but rather Israel’s enlightenment being pictured. Bethsaida, recall, is spiritually blinded. She has been given over to darkness, just like Israel as a whole because the nation has constantly rejected Jesus these past two years (Matthew 13:10-17; Mark 4:10-12; Luke 8:9-10). However, at Christ’s First Coming, there is a believing remnant within the nation. This remnant has been restored to spiritual sight, and the nation partially recovered from spiritual blindness. This corresponds to the first stage of the blind man’s cure. It will not be until the second time (the second laying on of Jesus’ hands, His Second Coming) that Israel is nationally converted and given spiritual sight (cf. Romans 11:25-27). Hence, the two stages of sight given to the blind man in Mark.

Saints, please remember us in your monthly giving—these websites do cost money to run! 🙂 You can donate securely here: https://www.paypal.me/ShawnBrasseaux, or email me at arcministries@gmail.com. Do not forget about Bible Q&A booklets for sale at https://arcgraceministries.org/in-print/booklets-bible-q-a/. Thanks to all who give to and pray for us! By the way, ministry emails have really been backed up this year. I am handling them as much as humanly possible. Thanks for your patience. 🙂

Also see:
» How was there healing in touching Jesus’ garment hem?
» What about modern-day “faith healing?”
» Is there “healing in the Atonement?”
» Why did Jesus Christ heal on the Sabbath day?