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Can you explain Matthew 11:12?

CAN YOU EXPLAIN MATTHEW 11:12?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Matthew 11:12 is considered yet another difficult passage. Like verse 11, however, it is easy to get when we just let the Bible speak for itself. We read: “And from the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of heaven suffereth violence, and the violent take it by force.” What does Scripture mean “the kingdom of heaven suffereth violence,” and “the violent take it by force?” Many consider that last phrase particularly mysterious. Let us do some verse comparisons; the Bible will interpret itself.

“AND FROM THE DAYS OF JOHN THE BAPTIST UNTIL NOW….”

The best verse to compare Matthew 11:12 to is verse 13 (the next verse!). We read both verses: “[12] And from the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of heaven suffereth violence, and the violent take it by force. [13] For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John.” Prior to John the Baptist’s ministry (which began in Matthew chapter 3), the only revelation the nation Israel had from God was the Law and the Prophets. We call these writings the “Old Testament” (Genesis through Malachi). Moses and all the other prophets had predicted for centuries about a coming King and kingdom for Israel.

Beginning with John the Baptist, though, there was a major development in God’s program for the nation Israel. Matthew 3:1-2 comments: “[1] In those days came John the Baptist, preaching in the wilderness of Judaea, [2] And saying, Repent ye: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.” Now, Israel’s Messiah was in her midst. Jesus Christ had been born, He was to be water baptized of John, and (like John) He would soon preach the Gospel of the Kingdom Himself. The kingdom was not merely centuries away, but was now “at hand.” It was within Israel’s grasp, very close, as close as it had ever been.

With the kingdom now within reach, God would cleanse Israel of her sins and make her His people. He would restore to her the Promised Land first deeded to her patriarch Abraham. He would give back her Davidic kingdom that she had lost centuries earlier due to her sin. But, prior to that kingdom, there would be divine wrath to purge out the unbelievers. Only believers would enter that Millennium, that earthly kingdom of God.

Matthew chapter 3 continues: “[3] For this is he that was spoken of by the prophet Esaias, saying, The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight. [4] And the same John had his raiment of camel’s hair, and a leathern girdle about his loins; and his meat was locusts and wild honey. [5] Then went out to him Jerusalem, and all Judaea, and all the region round about Jordan, [6] And were baptized of him in Jordan, confessing their sins.

“[7] But when he saw many of the Pharisees and Sadducees come to his baptism, he said unto them, O generation of vipers, who hath warned you to flee from the wrath to come? [8] Bring forth therefore fruits meet for repentance: [9] And think not to say within yourselves, We have Abraham to our father: for I say unto you, that God is able of these stones to raise up children unto Abraham. [10] And now also the axe is laid unto the root of the trees: therefore every tree which bringeth not forth good fruit is hewn down, and cast into the fire. [11] I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire: [12] Whose fan is in his hand, and he will throughly purge his floor, and gather his wheat into the garner; but he will burn up the chaff with unquenchable fire.”

Unbelievers, especially Israel’s religious leaders (Pharisees and Sadducees), were happy with the way things were in the nation. They were in power, enjoying prestige, self-righteousness, and wealth. For JEHOVAH God to send a prophet (John the Baptist) to announce His Son’s (Jesus Christ’s) arrival in the nation, it convicted them and made them antagonistic. They were not about to give up their religious or governmental privileges. That kingdom of righteousness would wipe them away, and they would not stand for it. They would fight against God as much as they could!

“…THE KINGDOM OF HEAVEN SUFFERETH VIOLENCE….”

“The kingdom of heaven” here in Matthew 11:12 is the same as the “kingdom of heaven” that we read John the Baptist preaching in Matthew 3:1-2: “[1] In those days came John the Baptist, preaching in the wilderness of Judaea, [2] And saying, Repent ye: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.”

However, by the time of Matthew chapter 11, a year has (or two years have) passed. Jesus Christ has preached, “Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand” (Matthew 4:17). He has been teaching and preaching “the gospel of the kingdom,” and healing all manner of disease and sickness among the people of Israel (Matthew 9:35). By the time of Matthew chapter 11, John the Baptist’s ministry has ended. He is in prison, awaiting execution. Matthew 11:2-3: “[2] Now when John had heard in the prison the works of Christ, he sent two of his disciples, [3] And said unto him, Art thou he that should come, or do we look for another?” Actually, John was imprisoned back in Matthew 4:12, several months (to perhaps two years) earlier.

When Jesus said in Matthew 11:12 “the kingdom of heaven suffereth violence,” He was pointing out the immense persecution resulting from the Gospel of the Kingdom being preached. Satan was putting up quite a fight to keep Israel in spiritual blindness. King Herod had arrested John the Baptist and would soon behead him. In the coming months, the opposition against Jesus Himself would increase. In Matthew chapter 12, we read about the Israeli religious leaders’ first conspiracy to take Jesus’ life (see verse 14). Now comes the pinnacle of Israel’s resistance to Jesus’ earthly ministry.

“AND THE VIOLENT TAKE IT BY FORCE.”

This is where most difficulty with Matthew 11:12 arises. What does it mean, “and the violent take it by force?” We want to take special care to make it clear here.

One modern English version says: “And from the days of John the Baptist until the present time, the kingdom of heaven has endured violent assault, and violent men seize it by force [as a precious prize—a share in the heavenly kingdom is sought with most ardent zeal and intense exertion].” The bracketed commentary represents a popular view of the latter part of the verse. Those taking the kingdom of heaven “by force” are assumed to be believers trying enter the kingdom of heaven. But, if we compare Scripture with Scripture, that is not the case.

It would be awfully strange for God’s Word to refer to believers as “violent” and them “by force” taking the kingdom of God. If that were true, we would expect the Bible to say, “And from the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of heaven suffereth violence, and the violent ENTER it by force.” These people are not entering the kingdom of heaven; they are taking it (as in stealing)! Furthermore, we already saw that the “violence” in Matthew 11:12 was caused by unbelievers. Those forcefully taking the kingdom of heaven would—as per common sense—mean unbelievers as well!

A popular view of interpreting Matthew 11:12 is to appeal to Luke 16:16. While I definitely agree third-thirds of each verse is similar, their latter phrases are different and should not be used interchangeably.

  • Matthew 11:12: “And from the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of heaven suffereth violence, and the violent take it by force.”
  • Luke 16:16: “The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it.”

Are “the violent take it by force” (Matthew 11:12) and “every man presseth into it” (Luke 16:16) synonymous? Again, some say yes (go back to that modern version we quoted at the beginning of the section). However, let me remind you again of our earlier comments. The “violence” in Matthew 11:12 referred to unbelievers opposing God’s people. Those forcefully taking the kingdom would be unbelievers as well!

The people in Matthew 11:12 are not “entering” or “pressing into” the kingdom of heaven; they are “taking it by force” (as in stealing)! Luke 16:16—“pressing into it”—speaks of something else entirely. Matthew 11:12 talks about lost people taking the kingdom of heaven while Luke 16:16 talks about believers entering the kingdom of heaven. We should not confuse the issues by conflating the verses. They are speaking of separate activities. There are those entering the kingdom of heaven by faith (Luke 16:16), but there are others trying to take that kingdom away from those believers (Matthew 11:12). Remember, during Christ’s earthly ministry, there is a campaign of intimidation, oppression, and other persecution. Israel’s Little Flock is suffering for following Jesus Christ. People are being intimidated into leaving Jesus, or not joining Him at all. John is imprisoned and will lose his life. Jesus Himself will be put to death in another year or so. This leads us to the violent taking the kingdom of heaven by force.

Several months after Matthew chapter 11, and less than a week before His death, the Lord Jesus issued a parable in Matthew chapter 21: “[33] Hear another parable: There was a certain householder, which planted a vineyard, and hedged it round about, and digged a winepress in it, and built a tower, and let it out to husbandmen, and went into a far country: [34] And when the time of the fruit drew near, he sent his servants to the husbandmen, that they might receive the fruits of it. [35] And the husbandmen took his servants, and beat one, and killed another, and stoned another. [36] Again, he sent other servants more than the first: and they did unto them likewise. [37] But last of all he sent unto them his son, saying, They will reverence my son. [38] But when the husbandmen saw the son, they said among themselves, This is the heir; come, let us kill him, and let us seize on his inheritance. [39] And they caught him, and cast him out of the vineyard, and slew him. [40] When the lord therefore of the vineyard cometh, what will he do unto those husbandmen?

“[41] They say unto him, He will miserably destroy those wicked men, and will let out his vineyard unto other husbandmen, which shall render him the fruits in their seasons. [42] Jesus saith unto them, Did ye never read in the scriptures, The stone which the builders rejected, the same is become the head of the corner: this is the Lord’s doing, and it is marvellous in our eyes? [43] Therefore say I unto you, The kingdom of God shall be taken from you, and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof. [44] And whosoever shall fall on this stone shall be broken: but on whomsoever it shall fall, it will grind him to powder. [45] And when the chief priests and Pharisees had heard his parables, they perceived that he spake of them. [46] But when they sought to lay hands on him, they feared the multitude, because they took him for a prophet.”

Jesus actually told a parable to the Israeli religious leaders who would shortly put Him to death. Father God had sent prophets to speak to Israel’s religious leaders throughout the centuries, but they killed those prophets. Finally, God sent His Son Jesus Christ, to Israel, but Israel’s religious leaders killed Him too. Jesus Christ, in explaining that parable, said that He would come back and destroy those who would take His life. That is His Second Coming, when He returns to set up His kingdom on the Earth. Having come “full circle,” we see this as “the kingdom of heaven” that John the Baptist preached. Now, let us back up a bit to tie up some “loose ends.”

Pay special attention to Matthew 21:38: “But when the husbandmen saw the son, they said among themselves, This is the heir; come, let us kill him, and let us seize on his inheritance.” These religious leaders of Israel wanted to kill Jesus Christ in order to take His kingdom from Him (and retain their own power over Israel). They plotted, not only to take the lives of His servants (the prophets), but also to take His life! This is the “the violent take it by force” of Matthew 11:12. These people treated God’s Son in a most violent manner. The King’s murder was the culmination of “the kingdom of heaven suffereth violence.” By nailing the Lord Jesus to Calvary’s cross, they thought that His death would be the end of Him. Dead and gone, He could be no King of Israel. They could continue reigning over Israel with their worthless religion. (Of course, we all know the Lord Jesus did not stay dead! He resurrected, and is coming again one day to bring in Israel’s literal, physical, visible, earthly, Davidic kingdom!)

Also see:
» Can you explain Matthew 11:11?
» What is the difference between the “kingdom of heaven” and the “kingdom of God?”
» Was John the Baptist really Elijah?

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, Can you explain Matthew 11:11?, Can you explain Matthew 11:11?, Can you explain Matthew 11:11?, DENOMINATIONS, CULTS, & FALSE TEACHING, THE NATION ISRAEL

Can you explain Matthew 11:11?

CAN YOU EXPLAIN MATTHEW 11:11?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Some find Matthew 11:11 very tricky: “Verily I say unto you, Among them that are born of women there hath not risen a greater than John the Baptist: notwithstanding he that is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he.” What does it mean, “he that is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than [John the Baptist]?” Will John the Baptist not be in the kingdom of heaven?

The Russellites (so-called “Jehovah’s Witnesses”) have taken Matthew 11:11 and twisted it to bolster their “terrestrial/celestial kingdom” tenet. They unapologetically teach that “only 144,000 will go to heaven” (“celestial kingdom”). According to them, the rest of the believers in Christ will dwell on earth (“terrestrial kingdom”). They say that all unbelievers will be “destroyed, annihilated” (instead of enduring a literal place of unending torment, “Hell,” they cease to exist). While the theological positions of the Russellites are extremely shaky and downright heretical at times, time and space limit us to commenting on their interpretation of Matthew 11:11. In the back of their “New World Translation” (the official “WatchTower Society” “bible”), there is an appendix of brief notes and references concerning various topics. Under the topic of “Life,” they have: “Not even John the Baptizer to be in heavenly kingdom…. Mt 11:11.” There, they also mention, “Only 144,000 taken from earth.”

We should not be shocked that Russellites confuse Matthew 11:11. After all, the New World Translation says there: “Truly I say to YOU people, Among those born of women there has not been raised up a greater than John the Baptist; but a person that is a lesser one in the kingdom of the heavens is greater than he is.” This is somewhat awkward English, making the verse obscure. Notice the “hard-to-read” King James Bible is actually easier: “Verily I say unto you, Among them that are born of women there hath not risen a greater than John the Baptist: notwithstanding he that is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he.”

It is somewhat comical that someone would read Matthew 11:11 and conclude John the Baptist would not be in the kingdom of heaven at all. The verse said nothing of the kind—not even in the New World Translation! We do not read in their own “bible:” “Truly I say to YOU people, Among those born of women there has not been raised up a greater than John the Baptist; but he will be forbidden from the kingdom of the heavens and others better than he will go in.” If I were a Russellite, I would have translated my “bible” this way in this verse. Left alone, that verse is the last I would appeal to in order to preclude John the Baptist from the kingdom of heaven!

The emphasis in the verse is not John the Baptist the man. What is being stressed here is his office, his function. What was his role? Why, dear friend, rather than endlessly wondering or idly speculating, read the verse before it! Matthew 11:10-11 says: “[10] For this is he, of whom it is written, Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee. [11] Verily I say unto you, Among them that are born of women there hath not risen a greater than John the Baptist: notwithstanding he that is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he.” Rather than grabbing verse 11 and yanking it from its context (as Russellites and others do), we use verse 10 to interpret it. The Lord Jesus Himself said John the Baptist was a fulfillment of the prophecy in Malachi 3:1: “Behold, I will send my messenger, and he shall prepare the way before me: and the LORD, whom ye seek, shall suddenly come to his temple, even the messenger of the covenant, whom ye delight in: behold, he shall come, saith the LORD of hosts” (cf. Mark 1:1-4).

What was John the Baptist’s purpose? Malachi 3:1 said that he was to “prepare the way before [Jesus Christ, JEHOVAH God in the flesh].” John’s role was to announce to the nation Israel that her Messiah had arrived. Luke 1:16-17 says of John before his birth: “[16] And many of the children of Israel shall he turn to the Lord their God. [17] And he shall go before him in the spirit and power of Elias, to turn the hearts of the fathers to the children, and the disobedient to the wisdom of the just; to make ready a people prepared for the Lord.”

As document in Matthew 3:1-17, Mark 1:1-8, Luke 3:1-18, and John 1:6-34, John the Baptist conducted a ministry and preached, “Repent ye: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.” Jews awaiting Messiah’s coming went out to John and “were baptized of him in Jordan, confessing their sins” (Matthew 3:6). Acts 13:24 summarizes: “When John had first preached before his coming the baptism of repentance to all the people of Israel.” These believers formed “the Little Flock” (Luke 12:32), the believing remnant in Israel that would become God’s “chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people” (1 Peter 2:9). They saw Jesus as their Messiah/Christ. Unlike the unbelievers in Israel, these saints would inherit God’s earthly kingdom (Luke 12:32).

John’s baptism made the conversion of the Little Flock possible because it made the introduction and acceptance of Jesus possible. After all, Father God sent John the Baptist to prepare Israel for His Son’s arrival. The Bible says, “There was a man sent from God, who name was John. The same came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all men through him might believe…. And I saw, and bare record that this is the Son of God” (John 1:6-7,34). What the Old Testament prophets only spoke of and saw with eyes of faith centuries prior, John had the privilege of personally seeing and introducing Israel to her Messiah! The office John held was valuable only because of the Person it exalted. John was just an ordinary man, but he was preaching Jesus Christ, the universe’s greatest Person!

Still, Acts 13:24 reminds us: “When John had first preached before his coming the baptism of repentance to all the people of Israel.” John the Baptist did not have a ministry to the whole world. Unlike today’s missionaries, he did not go to all nations preaching Jesus Christ and water baptizing all nations. The Bible is clear that John the Baptist’s ministry was confined to the nation Israel. As spectacular as John’s role was, it only involved Israel’s conversion. All members of the Little Flock (true Israel) will have a much more magnificent ministry than John. When Jesus Christ returns at His Second Coming, the Little Flock (Jewish believers in Israel’s prophetic program—including John the Baptist) will enter God’s earthly kingdom. The God of heaven will set up a kingdom on Earth, and thus it is called “the kingdom of heaven.” When the kingdom of heaven is established, when the Millennial Reign of Jesus Christ begins, there will be worldwide revival. Every member of the Little Flock will personally introduce Jesus Christ to the believing Gentiles (nations). This is a more extensive ministry than John the Baptist’s. Matthew 11:11 again: “Verily I say unto you, Among them that are born of women there hath not risen a greater than John the Baptist: notwithstanding he that is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he.”

The Prophet Jeremiah said in chapter 31: “[31] Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah: [32] Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the LORD: [33] But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people. [34] And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.”

The whole purpose of the New Covenant is to make the nation Israel God’s people. It applies Jesus Christ’s shed blood to them, resulting in the cleansing of their national sins (cf. Hebrews 10:1-22, note especially verses 10-17). Every Jew, “least and greatest,” will “know the LORD.” They will all have a personal relationship with JEHOVAH God and they will all know His laws. Why will they have this special association with the one true God? They will be thus qualified to be heirs of the Abrahamic Covenant. God wants to bless Israel and make her a blessing to all nations.

Genesis 12:1-3 says: “[1] Now the LORD had said unto Abram, Get thee out of thy country, and from thy kindred, and from thy father’s house, unto a land that I will shew thee: [2] And I will make of thee a great nation, and I will bless thee, and make thy name great; and thou shalt be a blessing: [3] And I will bless them that bless thee, and curse him that curseth thee: and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed.” With the nation converted and entering the Millennium, those redeemed Jews become a kingdom of priests who go and evangelize the nations. This was God’s intention in the Abrahamic Covenant. Once the New Covenant is ratified at Christ’s Second Coming, and the Millennial Reign of Jesus Christ begins on Earth, read the following verses and watch Israel function in her God-given capacity.

Zechariah 8:20-23: “[20] Thus saith the LORD of hosts; It shall yet come to pass, that there shall come people, and the inhabitants of many cities: [21] And the inhabitants of one city shall go to another, saying, Let us go speedily to pray before the LORD, and to seek the LORD of hosts: I will go also. [22] Yea, many people and strong nations shall come to seek the LORD of hosts in Jerusalem, and to pray before the LORD. [23] Thus saith the LORD of hosts; In those days it shall come to pass, that ten men shall take hold out of all languages of the nations, even shall take hold of the skirt of him that is a Jew, saying, We will go with you: for we have heard that God is with you.”

Matthew 28:18-20 says to Israel’s believing remnant: “[18] And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth. [19] Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: [20] Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world. Amen.” Numbers 23:9 says Israel “shall not be reckoned among the nations.” This means, when paired with Matthew 28:19, that Israel is not to be taught the things of God in the Millennium. Why? They already know God’s laws because they have been given the New Covenant! They are now to teach God’s Word to the Gentiles (non-Jews, the nations).

Revelation 5:10 says of believing Israel: “And hast made us unto our God kings and priests: and we shall reign on the earth.” First Peter 2:8-10 amplifies: “[8] And [Jesus Christ, verse 5, is] a stone of stumbling, and a rock of offence, even to them which stumble at the word, being disobedient: whereunto also they were appointed. [9] But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light; [10] Which in time past were not a people, but are now the people of God: which had not obtained mercy, but now have obtained mercy.” Isaiah 61:6 prophesies of believing Israel in her Millennial Kingdom: “But ye shall be named the Priests of the LORD: men shall call you the Ministers of our God: ye shall eat the riches of the Gentiles, and in their glory shall ye boast yourselves.”

Isaiah 60:1-3 says to Israel because Messiah is now in her midst, the Millennium beginning: “[1] Arise, shine; for thy light is come, and the glory of the LORD is risen upon thee. [2] For, behold, the darkness shall cover the earth, and gross darkness the people: but the LORD shall arise upon thee, and his glory shall be seen upon thee. [3] And the Gentiles shall come to thy light, and kings to the brightness of thy rising.”

Finally, Isaiah 2:1-4 is a beautiful summary of the Millennial Kingdom: “[1] The word that Isaiah the son of Amoz saw concerning Judah and Jerusalem. [2] And it shall come to pass in the last days, that the mountain of the LORD’S house shall be established in the top of the mountains, and shall be exalted above the hills; and all nations shall flow unto it. [3] And many people shall go and say, Come ye, and let us go up to the mountain of the LORD, to the house of the God of Jacob; and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths: for out of Zion shall go forth the law, and the word of the LORD from Jerusalem. [4] And he shall judge among the nations, and shall rebuke many people: and they shall beat their swords into plowshares, and their spears into pruninghooks: nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more.”

CONCLUSION

Matthew 11:11 is not difficult to understand, provided we use verse 10 and other Scriptures to interpret it. Every believing Jew in the kingdom of heaven will minister to numerous Gentiles of various nations and languages. In the Millennium, the 1000-Year Reign of Christ on Earth, each member of the Little Flock will have privilege of sharing Jesus Christ with the nations of the world. This is far grander than anything Father God ever sent John the Baptist to do. John’s ministry was restricted to the nation Israel but Israel in the Kingdom will have a worldwide ministry. Nothing is difficult here. The only reason why this becomes hard to grasp is when we start inserting the idle speculations of denominational proponents. Leave religious tradition out of it and all will be clear!

SUPPLEMENTAL: MALACHI 3:1 IN THE “RUSSELLITE BIBLE”

Our King James Bible says in Malachi 3:1: “Behold, I will send my messenger, and he shall prepare the way before me: and the LORD, whom ye seek, shall suddenly come to his temple, even the messenger of the covenant, whom ye delight in: behold, he shall come, saith the LORD of hosts.”

Who is talking in the above verse? The end of the verse says that the speaker is “The LORD of hosts” (JEHOVAH God). Who is the “me” in “he [John] shall prepare the way before me?” Obviously, the “me” is the speaker (JEHOVAH). John is coming to prepare the way before JEHOVAH. Yet, according to the New Testament, John came to prepare the way before Jesus Christ (cf. Mark 1:1-4). This leads to one inevitable conclusion: Jesus Christ and JEHOVAH are one and the same Person.

Horror of horrors, friends! The “Jehovah’s Witness” is shocked to see that we can disprove their theology by appealing to their own “bible.” Malachi 3:1 says in the New World Translation: “ ‘Look! I am sending my messenger, and he must clear up a way before me. And suddenly there will come to His temple the [true] Lord, whom YOU people are seeking, and the messenger of the covenant in whom YOU are delighting. Look! He will certainly come, Jehovah of armies has said.” (The “me” and “Jehovah of armies” are one and the same, Jesus Christ and JEHOVAH are synonymous!)

Also see:
» Can you explain Matthew 11:12?
» Was John the Baptist really Elijah?
» What is the difference between the “kingdom of heaven” and the “kingdom of God?”

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, BIBLE VERSIONS AND MANUSCRIPTS, Why does the King James Bible say “pisseth against the wall?”, Why does the King James Bible say “pisseth against the wall?”

Why does the King James Bible say, “pisseth against the wall?”

WHY DOES THE KING JAMES BIBLE SAY, “PISSETH AGAINST THE WALL?”

by Shawn Brasseaux

Any reader of the Authorized Version has encountered this phrase several times in the “Old Testament.” It is an object of criticism in the lips and pens of King James Bible critics. Some genuine Bible-believing Christians, including myself, have stumbled over it for years. It is quite embarrassing to some. Is not “piss” slang and vulgar? How can God’s Word use it over and over again? Were the 1611 translators wrong for employing the term? And, how is “against a wall” related to all of this? Prepare for a Bible lesson, cultural insight, and some studies in etymology!

The phrase “pisseth against the (/a) wall” appears six times in the King James Bible. Notice:

  • 1 Samuel 25:22: “So and more also do God unto the enemies of David, if I leave of all that pertain to him by the morning light any that pisseth against the wall.”
  • 1 Samuel 25:34: “For in very deed, as the LORD God of Israel liveth, which hath kept me back from hurting thee, except thou hadst hasted and come to meet me, surely there had not been left unto Nabal by the morning light any that pisseth against the wall.”
  • 1 Kings 14:10: “Therefore, behold, I will bring evil upon the house of Jeroboam, and will cut off from Jeroboam him that pisseth against the wall, and him that is shut up and left in Israel, and will take away the remnant of the house of Jeroboam, as a man taketh away dung, till it be all gone.”
  • 1 Kings 16:11: “And it came to pass, when he began to reign, as soon as he sat on his throne, that he slew all the house of Baasha: he left him not one that pisseth against a wall, neither of his kinsfolks, nor of his friends.”
  • 1 Kings 21:21: “Behold, I will bring evil upon thee, and will take away thy posterity, and will cut off from Ahab him that pisseth against the wall, and him that is shut up and left in Israel,….”
  • 2 Kings 9:8: “For the whole house of Ahab shall perish: and I will cut off from Ahab him that pisseth against the wall, and him that is shut up and left in Israel:….”

A LESSON IN TRANSLATION

Strong’s Hebrew and Aramaic Dictionary of the Old Testament has the following as entry #H8366: “שָׁתַן shâthan, shaw-than’; a primitive root; (causatively) to make water, i.e. urinate:—piss.” In other words, “piss” is a valid translation of the underlying Hebrew text of the King James Bible Old Testament. We will get to all the various aspects of the matter. For now, just notice that “piss” is no “mis-translation” on the part of the 1611 translators. They knew exactly what they were doing.

A LESSON IN EASTERN CULTURE

Gesenius’ Hebrew-Chaldee Lexicon has the following entry for “שָׁתַן shâthan:”

“….MAKING WATER…. It occurs in this one phrase, [placeholder for Hebrew characters] ‘one making water against the wall,’ which is generally a contemptuous designation for a little boy, especially when mention is made of extirpating a whole race or family, 1 Ki. 16:11, ‘he slew all the house of Baasha, and left him none, mingens ad parietem (not even a boy), relations and friends;’ 1 Ki. 14:10; 21:21; 1 Sa. 25:22, 34; 2 Ki. 9:8; compare the same phrase in Syriac, e. g. Assem. Bibl. Orient. ii. p. 260, ‘an diœcesis sacra Gumæ (me teneat) in qua non remansit qui mingat ad parietem?’ i.e. quæ tota devastata est. The phrase seems to be used contemptuously to denote a boy, because adults in the East regard decency in doing this sitting down [covered with their garments], nor would they do it in the sight of others (Herod. ii. 35; Cyrop. i. 2, §16; Ammian. Marcell. xxiii. 6). Some have understood a slave, and a person of the lowest rank (Jahn, Arch. i. 2, p. 77; Hermeneut. Sacræ, p. 31), and some have understood a dog (Ephr. Syr. Opp. i. 542; Abulwalid, Judah ben Karish MSS., Kimchi, Jarchi); but both of these are unsuitable to the context of the passages. See Lud. de Dieu, on 1 Sam. 25:34; Boch. Hieroz. i. p. 675.” (Bold emphasis mine.)

In light of the above facts, modern English versions (NIV, NASB, ESV, NKJV, NLT, NRSV, et cetera) are incorrect when they substitute the King James’ “him/any that pisseth against the (/a) wall” with “single male” or “every male.” The original Hebrew phrase did not mean any and every male, but rather indicative of male children. It singles out little boys, signifying that they will die before reaching adulthood. The King James Bible text is specific—boys rather than adult men. This narrowing-down allows us to see that these individuals will not even be allowed to reproduce. Their dying as (childless) juveniles is much more devastating to a family than dying adults who have already reproduced. The youngest generations are vital to the perpetuation of the family.

A LESSON IN FIRST WORD APPEARANCES

According to Merriam-Webster’s website, the first known use of the word “urinate” was in 1599. “Piss,” however, is much older—Merriam-Webster dates it back to the 14th century (1300s). Dictionary.com estimates “piss” originated 1250–1300, while “urinate” appeared approximately 1590–1600. We see that “piss” was the original word. This information greatly helps us in understanding the Bible issue at hand. When the King James Bible was translated (1604–1610) and published (1611), “urinate” was still a new word (as best as we can tell, at most 20 years old). Hence, the King James Bible and its English predecessors would have used the more familiar, the more common, “piss.”

A LESSON IN ETYMOLOGY

Our English word “piss” came from the Middle English pissen, from the Old French pissier, itself derived from the Vulgar Latin *pisiāre “(imitative).” The word is an example of onomatopoeia—that is, the term imitates the sound. The term “piss” was not originally meant to be offensive; it was simply conveying the noise of urination (the dictionary calls it “imitative,” please note). While sinful man has degenerated the word “piss” to now be a vulgar and slang term, it was not viewed offensive in early English. Are we beginning to gain valuable insight here? I hope so!

When we consider the fact that the 1611 Authorized Version translators were God-fearing, Jesus-Christ-trusting, very scholarly (educated), and morally upright men; we give them the benefit of the doubt that they would have used proper, eloquent English when handling God’s precious words. There are many times in the Bible text where our 1611 scholars actually rendered words mildly that could have been translated quite bluntly (various horrific acts and statements of Bible characters, intense or intimate situations, awkward conditions, et cetera—for examples, see our related studies linked at the end of this article). “Piss” in no way was disrespectful when they used it. They did not use the term as “street-talkers” use it today. It was the common term at the time, so it was acceptable. Since the King James Bible’s English is a dead language, its meaning has not changed in the Bible text. It still has a pure meaning. Friend, there is no need to be uncomfortable.

A LESSON IN TEACHING

As English-speaking people in the 21st century, we would do well to remember the current and usual meaning of the word “piss.” It is often used negatively, vulgarly, disrespectfully. What should we do when we come across this phrase when publicly reading the King James Bible? Should we remove “pisseth against the wall?” Certainly not. “Every word” in the King James Bible is important because “every word of God” is important (Matthew 4:4). We should take nothing from the Bible. It is not the job of the Bible preacher or teacher to attack or correct the textbook. The Bible preacher or teacher is to read the Bible text as it is, without making changes, and then explain any difficulties. If there is an archaic word, define it for your audience rather than toss it out! If there is encountered a technical term, an unfamiliar cultural reference, an enigmatic geographic location, et cetera; be the Bible teacher and teach it! Do not deprive your audience of the education the King James Bible affords.

CONCLUSION

Before your audience, read the “pisseth against the wall” verses as they are (it is no different than the Authorized Version’s “ass” verses that refer to a “donkey”). Then be every careful to clarify and say…. “Let me stop a few moments to explain this special phrase. ‘Urinate’ was a new word at the time of the Authorized Version’s production (1611); it had not come into common English usage yet. ‘Piss’ was the older and more familiar term. It was purer then than it is now: it was not vulgar then as it is today. Now, to the ‘against the wall’ part. At the time of this Bible verse, in the East, it was common for an adult man to sit down and urinate, thus giving him privacy. [Notice how you switch the term here, as you are no longer directly quoting the Authorized Version.] A boy was less indecent, exposing himself, while urinating. The term ‘he that pisseth against the wall’ refers strictly to a boy rather than an adult man.”

The above handling of the King James Bible allows three things.

Firstly, you are not criticizing the Bible text. You are showing people how they can believe it, trust it, embrace it. You do not say, “This Bible verse or word is wrong. It should be translated as….” (If you do, then they will wonder, “If this is wrong, what other mistakes are there in Scripture?” They will ask, “What else can I not believe in the Bible?” Then you become the authority, making the Bible say something so that it agrees with your understanding. Ultimately, you also look foolish, having undermined the book you claim to “believe” and “defend!”) There is no “wrong translation.” The only person who complains “wrong translation” or “disrespectful interpretation” is one too ignorant on the subject to provide authoritative, meaningful commentary. (Friend, I hope there was nothing hard to understand in that last sentence! I meant it wholeheartedly.)

Secondly, you as the Bible teacher or preacher are doing your job. You are explaining something that requires study (which is what you should have already done to prepare your sermon). By you adequately preparing to minister to them, you can greatly help them in their spiritual journey. Your audience can expand their English vocabulary, can appreciate their language better, can glimpse into Old Testament Eastern history, and so on. Best of all, there is an opportunity to become more familiar with the Bible text! We need not fear unfamiliar items in Scripture.

Lastly, you are silencing the King James Bible critics. You are equipping people with the knowledge they need to answer those who want them to disbelieve the Bible. For any in your audience who are unsaved people (Bible haters, Bible critics), they have occasion to see the Bible as it is to be properly understood. Perhaps your “unheard-of statements” will grab their attention and cause them to research the Bible themselves. Maybe they will not be so careless next time when complaining about the Scriptures. There is nothing dirty or evil about the phrase “pisseth against the wall” as it sits in the Bible text. Our 1611 translators in no way would defile God’s Holy Word. We give them the benefit of the doubt, even more so after researching the matter.

Also see:
» What are “emerods?”
» What is “the botch of Egypt?”
» What was wrong with Leah’s eyes?

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, Do Hosea 11:12 and Hosea 12:2 contradict?

Do Hosea 11:12 and Hosea 12:2 contradict?

DO HOSEA 11:12 AND HOSEA 12:2 CONTRADICT?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Hosea 11:12: “Ephraim compasseth me about with lies, and the house of Israel with deceit: but Judah yet ruleth with God, and is faithful with the saints.”

Hosea 12:2: “The LORD hath also a controversy with Judah, and will punish Jacob according to his ways; according to his doings will he recompense him.”

Hosea 11:12 says, “Judah yet ruleth with God, and is faithful with the saints.” There is nothing wrong here. However, in chapter 12, the following is found in verse 2: “The LORD hath also a controversy with Judah, and will punish Jacob according to his ways; according to his doings will he recompense him.” Is Judah “with God… faithful with the saints” (Hosea 11:12)? Yes. Then why does God have a “controversy with Judah” in Hosea 12:2? Is there a problem with the Bible text here?

Friend, the easiest explanation is usually the most likely. Here is the simplest answer. When the Prophet Hosea wrote/preached Hosea 11:12, Judah (Southern Kingdom) was still on God’s side. By the time of Hosea 12:2, however, a considerable amount of time has passed. Now, Judah is apostate, against God, sinful enough to where JEHOVAH God complains about them; they are now just as wicked as Israel (Northern Kingdom). Hosea’s ministry covered a long period of time—Dr. Scofield, citing Archbishop Ussher, estimates 60 years. Hosea chapter 11 is estimated to be 740 B.C. while chapter 12 is approximately 725 B.C. Over a period of as much as 15 years, Judah transformed from good to bad, righteous to evil.

What happened to Judah between Hosea chapters 11 and 12 is something all too familiar to us even today. We lead someone to Christ as personal Saviour, and he or she starts off in sound doctrine. That person attends Bible study, agrees with the doctrine, and seems to be progressing in spiritual maturity. Sometime later, he or she slips away into error, waxing worse and worse. While the person started off right, he or she ended up wrong. There are two separate conditions here, each at a different point in time.

Concerning Hosea 11:12 and Hosea 12:2, there is no need to cry out as the critics do, “Contradiction!” We have no reason to doubt the Bible, friend. Each verse is true at a specific point in time, but they are not true at the same time (use common sense). This is yet another proof that if we encounter a problem in Bible study, the problem is not with the Bible but rather with us! We should always give the Bible the benefit of the doubt—that is the viewpoint of the Bible believer anyway. Simple!

Also see:
» Why are Acts 9:7 and Acts 22:9 contradictory?
» Why does Acts 2:35 use “foes” but Psalm 110:1 use “enemies?”
» Do Matthew 10:10, Mark 6:8, and Luke 9:3 contradict?

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, How was Jesus Christ “raised again?” Why “again?”

How was Jesus Christ “raised again?” Why “again?”

HOW WAS JESUS CHRIST “RAISED AGAIN?” WHY “AGAIN?”

by Shawn Brasseaux

The Scriptures tell us nearly two-dozen times that the Lord Jesus “rose again” or was “raised again.” Some people are puzzled by this, especially the adverb “again.” Is the Bible saying there were two resurrections of Jesus? We will take some time here to “de-mystify” this issue.

As noted earlier, the Bible says numerous times that Jesus was “raised again” or that He “rose again.” Notice how this is repeated again and again:

  • Matthew 16:21: “From that time forth began Jesus to shew unto his disciples, how that he must go unto Jerusalem, and suffer many things of the elders and chief priests and scribes, and be killed, and be raised again the third day.”
  • Matthew 17:9: “And as they came down from the mountain, Jesus charged them, saying, Tell the vision to no man, until the Son of man be risen again from the dead.”
  • Matthew 17:23: “And they shall kill him, and the third day he shall be raised again. And they were exceeding sorry.”
  • Matthew 20:19: “And shall deliver him to the Gentiles to mock, and to scourge, and to crucify him: and the third day he shall rise again.”
  • Matthew 26:32: “But after I am risen again, I will go before you into Galilee.”
  • Matthew 27:63: “Saying, Sir, we remember that that deceiver said, while he was yet alive, After three days I will rise again.”
  • Mark 8:31: “And he began to teach them, that the Son of man must suffer many things, and be rejected of the elders, and of the chief priests, and scribes, and be killed, and after three days rise again.”
  • Mark 10:34: “And they shall mock him, and shall scourge him, and shall spit upon him, and shall kill him: and the third day he shall rise again.”
  • Luke 18:33: “And they shall scourge him, and put him to death: and the third day he shall rise again.”
  • Luke 24:7: “Saying, The Son of man must be delivered into the hands of sinful men, and be crucified, and the third day rise again.”
  • John 20:9: “For as yet they knew not the scripture, that he must rise again from the dead.”
  • Acts 13:33: “God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee.”
  • Acts 13:37: “But he, whom God raised again, saw no corruption.”
  • Acts 17:3: “Opening and alleging, that Christ must needs have suffered, and risen again from the dead; and that this Jesus, whom I preach unto you, is Christ.”
  • Romans 4:25: “Who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification.”
  • Romans 8:34: “Who is he that condemneth? It is Christ that died, yea rather, that is risen again, who is even at the right hand of God, who also maketh intercession for us.”
  • Romans 10:7: “Or, Who shall descend into the deep? (that is, to bring up Christ again from the dead.)”
  • 1 Corinthians 15:4: “And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:”
  • 2 Corinthians 5:15: “And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.”
  • 1 Thessalonians 4:14: “For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also which sleep in Jesus will God bring with him.”
  • Hebrews 13:20: “Now the God of peace, that brought again from the dead our Lord Jesus, that great shepherd of the sheep, through the blood of the everlasting covenant,”

DEFINING “AGAIN”

“Again” can be used in a variety of senses. According to The Oxford American English Dictionary, the primary usage is “once more; another time; anew; in addition.” (As in, “Will you spell your name again, please?”) Another way is “in an additional case or instance; moreover; besides; furthermore.” It can also be used in the sense of “on the other hand.” (As in, “It might happen, and again it might not.”) Yet another way it can be used is “back; in return; in reply.” (As in, “to answer again.”) Finally, “again” can be used to mean “to the same place or person.” (As in, “to return again.”) This last definition is how we should view Jesus Christ being “raised again.”

Notice what the Lord Himself said in John 10:18: “No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father.” When He resurrected, He took something back that was His—yea, He took back His life!

Consider these other related ideas in the Bible record:

  • John 6:39: “And this is the Father’s will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.” (Jesus Christ speaking of Him resurrecting His Israeli believers, yet future from us.)
  • John 11:23: “Jesus saith unto her, Thy brother shall rise again.” (He is saying that Lazarus will live again.)
  • John 11:24: “Martha saith unto him, I know that he shall rise again in the resurrection at the last day.” (See note at John 11:23 above.)
  • Luke 8:55: “And her spirit came again, and she arose straightway: and he commanded to give her meat.” (The little girl had life, she died, and Jesus gave her life again by raising her from the dead.)
  • Luke 9:8: “And of some, that Elias had appeared; and of others, that one of the old prophets was risen again.” (The “Old Testament” prophets were once living on Earth, and one of them was assumed to be living again on Earth and functioning as Jesus Christ. This, of course, was spiritual ignorance.)
  • Luke 9:19: “They answering said, John the Baptist; but some say, Elias; and others say, that one of the old prophets is risen again.” (See note on Luke 9:8 above.)
  • Luke 15:24: “For this my son was dead, and is alive again; he was lost, and is found. And they began to be merry.” (The father-son relationship was “dead,” non-functional, and then it resumed when the son returned to the father.)
  • Luke 15:32: “It was meet that we should make merry, and be glad: for this thy brother was dead, and is alive again; and was lost, and is found.” (The brother was “dead” to the family in that he abandoned them. However, when he came back, the relationship continued as it did before.)
  • Hebrews 11:35: “Women received their dead raised to life again: and others were tortured, not accepting deliverance; that they might obtain a better resurrection:” (The children of these women died physically, and then they were brought back to life. They resumed living as they had lived before.)

CONCLUSION

How did the Lord Jesus “rise again?” How was He “raised again?” The issue is not that He was resurrected twice (as some erroneously conclude) but rather that He lived twice—those two lives were separated by a resurrection. He lived once, and then He was killed and buried. He resurrected and then He lived again. His life was restored to Him. “Raised again” encompasses both the resurrection itself and the beginning of the new life that follows it. It is life resumed, or life as though death never occurred.

Also see:
» Where was Jesus during those three days?
» Could you describe Jesus’ resurrected body?
» Why did Jesus weep when Lazarus died?

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, Why did God get angry with Balaam in Numbers 22:22?

Why did God get angry with Balaam in Numbers 22:22?

WHY DID GOD GET ANGRY WITH BALAAM IN NUMBERS 22:22?

by Shawn Brasseaux

God’s Word says in Numbers 22:20-22: “[20] And God came unto Balaam at night, and said unto him, If the men come to call thee, rise up, and go with them; but yet the word which I shall say unto thee, that shalt thou do. [21] And Balaam rose up in the morning, and saddled his ass, and went with the princes of Moab. [22] And God’s anger was kindled because he went: and the angel of the LORD stood in the way for an adversary against him. Now he was riding upon his ass, and his two servants were with him.” God told Balaam he could go (verse 20), but when Balaam went, the Bible says, “God’s anger was kindled because he went” (verse 22). How could God get angry when Balaam followed His directions? Is God being unreasonable here?

While much background could be provided, for brevity’s sake, comments will be greatly limited. Having just defeated the Amorites in chapter 21, the Israelites are traveling through Moab. Balak, king of the Moabites, is afraid that the Jews might now make war with him and slaughter his people. Thus, he recruits Balaam the prophet to come and curse Israel. If Balak can get Balaam to turn Israel’s God against her, then Israel will be taken care of and Balak and the Moabites will escape unharmed. Balak sends two delegations of men to Balaam, using monetary offers to entice Balaam to come and curse Israel.

Dropping in at verse 16 of chapter 22, we gain the flow of the passage in question: “[16] And they came to Balaam, and said to him, Thus saith Balak the son of Zippor, Let nothing, I pray thee, hinder thee from coming unto me: [17] For I will promote thee unto very great honour, and I will do whatsoever thou sayest unto me: come therefore, I pray thee, curse me this people. [18] And Balaam answered and said unto the servants of Balak, If Balak would give me his house full of silver and gold, I cannot go beyond the word of the LORD my God, to do less or more. [19] Now therefore, I pray you, tarry ye also here this night, that I may know what the LORD will say unto me more.

“[20] And God came unto Balaam at night, and said unto him, If the men come to call thee, rise up, and go with them; but yet the word which I shall say unto thee, that shalt thou do. [21] And Balaam rose up in the morning, and saddled his ass, and went with the princes of Moab. [22] And God’s anger was kindled because he went: and the angel of the LORD stood in the way for an adversary against him. Now he was riding upon his ass, and his two servants were with him.”

Clearly, God endorsed Balaam going with Balak’s servants (verse 20). Yet, when Balaam went (verse 21), the Bible says in verse 22: “God’s anger was kindled because he went.” Bible critics use this as a proof text to say that God is unfair, fickle, or perhaps even deceitful. Why did God disapprove of Balaam doing something He approved Balaam of doing? It is very important that we read verse 20 very, very carefully: “And God came unto Balaam at night, and said unto him, If the men come to call thee, rise up, and go with them; but yet the word which I shall say unto thee, that shalt thou do.” God attached a condition to Balaam’s departure. Only if Balak’s servants called Balaam was Balaam to go with them. Balak’s servants did not call Balaam. Balaam simply got up and went. There was disobedience to God’s words. Balaam did not actually believe what God said, so he did not do what God wanted him to do. God said he could go IF they asked. They did not ask and yet he went anyway. Balaam was in the wrong, and God had every right to be angry with him for his unbelief. What was Balaam’s problem? It was materialism!

Second Peter chapter 2: “[14] Having eyes full of adultery, and that cannot cease from sin; beguiling unstable souls: an heart they have exercised with covetous practices; cursed children: [15] Which have forsaken the right way, and are gone astray, following the way of Balaam the son of Bosor, who loved the wages of unrighteousness; [16] But was rebuked for his iniquity: the dumb ass speaking with man’s voice forbad the madness of the prophet.”

Jude 11: “Woe unto them! for they have gone in the way of Cain, and ran greedily after the error of Balaam for reward, and perished in the gainsaying of Core.”

Saints, please remember us in your monthly giving. You can donate securely here: https://www.paypal.me/ShawnBrasseaux, or email me at arcministries@gmail.com. Do not forget about Bible Q&A booklets for sale at https://arcgraceministries.org/in-print/booklets-bible-q-a/. Thanks to all who give to and pray for us! 🙂

Also see:
» Was God “unfair” in striking Uzzah dead?
» How did King Saul die?
» Why does the Bible give two accounts of Judas’s death?

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, How did King Saul die?

How did King Saul die?

HOW DID KING SAUL DIE?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Who killed Saul? The Philistines? Or, was it suicide? Or, did an Amalekite kill him? What does the Bible say?

Unfortunately, people often approach the Bible with a fine-toothed comb, looking to find any little discrepancy so they can complain. Why are they so critical of God’s Word? Man wants to remove the Bible from the place of supreme authority. If the Scriptures can be disapproved, then they can be dethroned, and man’s opinions can be deified. There is nothing more to it than this. There is no sincere search for what is right and what is wrong, what is truth and what is error. The Bible skeptic already approaches the Bible with the assumption that it has mistakes; therefore, why should it shock us when the skeptic claims to find mistakes in the Bible? Anyways, let us approach the Bible in faith, giving it the benefit of the doubt.

The Bible says in 1 Samuel chapter 31: “[1] Now the Philistines fought against Israel: and the men of Israel fled from before the Philistines, and fell down slain in mount Gilboa. [2] And the Philistines followed hard upon Saul and upon his sons; and the Philistines slew Jonathan, and Abinadab, and Melchishua, Saul’s sons. [3] And the battle went sore against Saul, and the archers hit him; and he was sore wounded of the archers. [4] Then said Saul unto his armourbearer, Draw thy sword, and thrust me through therewith; lest these uncircumcised come and thrust me through, and abuse me. But his armourbearer would not; for he was sore afraid. Therefore Saul took a sword, and fell upon it. [5] And when his armourbearer saw that Saul was dead, he fell likewise upon his sword, and died with him. [6] So Saul died, and his three sons, and his armourbearer, and all his men, that same day together.”

The archers of the Philistines struck King Saul with several arrows: he was badly injured but still alive (verse 3). For this reason, he asked his armor bearer to kill him. King Saul did not want to be tortured and put to death by the Philistines. The armor bearer refused (verse 4): the armor bearer knew that he was not to kill the LORD’S anointed, and was too fearful to take Saul’s life. Therefore, the Bible says Saul fell upon his own sword, and he died (verse 6). When the armor bearer saw that Saul was dead, the armor bearer committed suicide himself. The armor bearer thought Saul was dead, Saul appeared to be dead, but was Saul actually dead? The first chapter of the next Bible Book generates some confusion here.

Second Samuel chapter 1 opens: “[1] Now it came to pass after the death of Saul, when David was returned from the slaughter of the Amalekites, and David had abode two days in Ziklag; [2] It came even to pass on the third day, that, behold, a man came out of the camp from Saul with his clothes rent, and earth upon his head: and so it was, when he came to David, that he fell to the earth, and did obeisance. [3] And David said unto him, From whence comest thou? And he said unto him, Out of the camp of Israel am I escaped. [4] And David said unto him, How went the matter? I pray thee, tell me. And he answered, That the people are fled from the battle, and many of the people also are fallen and dead; and Saul and Jonathan his son are dead also.

“[5] And David said unto the young man that told him, How knowest thou that Saul and Jonathan his son be dead? [6] And the young man that told him said, As I happened by chance upon mount Gilboa, behold, Saul leaned upon his spear; and, lo, the chariots and horsemen followed hard after him. [7] And when he looked behind him, he saw me, and called unto me. And I answered, Here am I. [8] And he said unto me, Who art thou? And I answered him, I am an Amalekite. [9] He said unto me again, Stand, I pray thee, upon me, and slay me: for anguish is come upon me, because my life is yet whole in me. [10] So I stood upon him, and slew him, because I was sure that he could not live after that he was fallen: and I took the crown that was upon his head, and the bracelet that was on his arm, and have brought them hither unto my lord.

“[11] Then David took hold on his clothes, and rent them; and likewise all the men that were with him: [12] And they mourned, and wept, and fasted until even, for Saul, and for Jonathan his son, and for the people of the LORD, and for the house of Israel; because they were fallen by the sword. [13] And David said unto the young man that told him, Whence art thou? And he answered, I am the son of a stranger, an Amalekite. [14] And David said unto him, How wast thou not afraid to stretch forth thine hand to destroy the LORD’S anointed? [15] And David called one of the young men, and said, Go near, and fall upon him. And he smote him that he died. [16] And David said unto him, Thy blood be upon thy head; for thy mouth hath testified against thee, saying, I have slain the LORD’S anointed.”

In chapter 1 of Second Samuel, a man approaches King David. He is an Amalekite (verse 8). The Amalekite informs David that Saul and his son Jonathan (David’s close friend) are dead (verse 4). He tells David that he found Saul wounded on the battlefield and killed him because Saul told him he wanted to die (verses 9-10). (Considering the fact that Saul unjustly harassed David in the previous Book, this Amalekite is hoping to gain David’s favor by telling him he took Saul’s life.) David reacts in a way that the Amalekite does not expect. David demands the Amalekite be put to death because he has killed the LORD’S anointed, the king chosen by God Himself (verses 14-16). Even David knew it was wrong to kill the king.

So, what really happened to Saul? The Philistines mortally wounded him, but he lived for some time. He finally stabbed himself with a sword, which ultimately hastened his death. The easiest answer is that Saul took his own life. What about the Amalekite’s account? We cannot be sure if what he said was true, since he could have embellished the story just to impress David. If we cannot be sure if the Amalekite’s account was true, then why did King David take his life? What if the Amalekite was actually innocent? The Amalekite’s execution was just because he had deep hatred toward the LORD’S anointed. Furthermore, David did not want to taint his monarchy by letting a professed murderer, the alleged killer of his predecessor, go off scot-free.

Also see:
» “From his shoulders and upward he was higher?”
» Why did God give Israel King Saul if Saul turned out to be evil?
» Why does the Bible give two accounts of Judas’ death?

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, DISPENSATIONAL BIBLE STUDY, Does Acts 26:22 disprove the Apostle Paul’s special doctrine?, Does Acts 26:22 disprove the Apostle Paul’s special doctrine?

Does Acts 26:22 disprove the Apostle Paul’s special doctrine?

DOES ACTS 26:22 DISPROVE THE APOSTLE PAUL’S SPECIAL DOCTRINE?

by Shawn Brasseaux

“Shawn, in your ‘Acts 9/28 Hybrid’ study you did back in (I believe) 2015, there was a verse that didn’t make the study. It’s a verse that many are using in regards to this silly doctrine. It’s Acts 26:22: ‘Having therefore obtained help of God, I continue unto this day, witnessing both to small and great, saying none other things than those which the prophets and Moses did say should come:’ People are getting tripped up on Paul saying ‘saying none other things than those which the prophets and Moses did say should come.’ Paul defines what that is in verse 23: ‘That Christ should suffer, and that he should be the first that should rise from the dead, and should shew light unto the people, and to the Gentiles.’ How do we reconcile this, when we know from Scripture that Paul said so much more? Those who hold to a ‘two sendings’ theology are saying that Paul never preached ‘mystery’ doctrine in Acts and use Acts 26:22 as one of their ‘pet’ verses.”

Hi, my brother! Thanks for bringing that to my attention. We will get right to addressing this most important matter. I am sure many are wondering how to handle this verse as well.

For those unfamiliar with “Acts 9/28 Hybrid Theology,” just be aware that it is a group of professing “Pauline dispensational Bible students” who attack and water down Paul’s special ministry in much the same way denominationalists do. They constantly mix Peter and Paul, the nation Israel with the Body of Christ. It is a very intricate and extremely confusing system that is certainly not—notice NOT!—of the God of the Bible. The system is nothing but the idle speculations of men parading as “grace teaching.” It is not pure grace teaching, and you will see that demonstrated shortly. By the way, as the brother mentioned in the opening question, a few years ago, we released a series of related Bible study videos (five) on YouTube and two online companion booklets. Please see the link at the end of this article to learn more about this “Acts 9/28 Hybrid Theology” system.

We would do well to begin in Romans 1:1-5: “[1] Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God, 2 (Which he had promised afore by his prophets in the holy scriptures,) [3] Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh; [4] And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead: [5] By whom we have received grace and apostleship, for obedience to the faith among all nations, for his name:”

Beyond any shadow of a doubt, there is only one Person in the universe named Jesus Christ. Of course, that God-Man had already been preached prior to the Apostle Paul’s conversion and ministry. To prove this, we can easily consult the Four Gospels, Matthew through John, as well as Acts chapters 1-8 (Saul/Paul was saved in chapter 9). Just as the God of the Bible was known to man prior to Paul, so the Son of God was known to man prior to Paul. As we will see later, this is the key to interpreting the verse in question.

Paul received directly from the risen and ascended Lord Jesus Christ a special set of doctrine that the Bible calls “the Dispensation of the Grace of God” (Ephesians 3:2). Paul’s preaching of Jesus Christ is not a mere supplement, or an extension, of the 12 Apostles’ ministries. Pauline doctrine is designed to present the same Person Jesus Christ from a brand-new perspective. It was not another Person named Jesus Christ but rather the same Jesus Christ serving in a different capacity, bearing a new title, glorified in a new way. That is why we read about Paul saying “the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery” (Romans 16:25). There is a secret aspect to Jesus Christ, and it is in the Pauline epistles, Romans through Philemon, alone that we see that secret brought to light (cf. Colossians 1:25-29; Ephesians 3:1-11; 1 Timothy 2:4-7; Titus 1:1-3).

The Lord Jesus dying was no secret in the “Old Testament.” You can read of Messiah being “cut off,” killed, in Daniel 9:26. Psalm 22:16 mentions them “piercing [His] hands and [His] feet.” Isaiah 53:8 says, “he was cut off out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken.” We can see Messiah dying in type as well—Abraham offering his son Isaac, the blood sacrifices of the Mosaic economy, Jonah expiring in the whale’s belly, and so on. Hence, 1 Corinthians 15:3 says, “Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures.” Jesus’ death (or suffering) was predicted by the Old Testament prophets: “[10] Of which salvation the prophets have enquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you: [11] Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow” (1 Peter 1:10-11).

As for the resurrection of Christ, it too was predicted in the Old Testament. “Christ… rose again the third day according to the scriptures” (1 Corinthians 15:4). Psalm 16:10-11 is one of the easiest examples to realize that the Old Testament prophets wrote of the resurrection centuries before it happened (cf. Acts 2:24-32): “[10] For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption. [11] Thou wilt shew me the path of life: in thy presence is fulness of joy; at thy right hand there are pleasures for evermore.” Jonah being resurrected after three days and three nights is another Old Testament hint of Messiah’s resurrection (Matthew 12:39-40). Abraham receiving Isaac to life was yet another picture of Christ being raised from the dead (Hebrews 11:17-19; cf. Genesis chapter 22).

Now, we return to your question about Paul’s “Acts” ministry. The unbelieving Jews in the Book of Acts traveled around and discredited Paul, portraying him as some evil religious leader, a fraud and a blasphemer (Acts 9:23-25; Acts 13:44-46; Acts 14:19; Acts 17:5; Acts 18:6; et cetera). However, (now we bring in Acts 26:22—your question), the Apostle defended himself by saying that he was actually preaching about the Person (Messiah) that their own Law and prophets foretold and exalted. They held Moses in such high regard, they valued the prophets, and Paul appealed to these works or texts they had accepted as genuine. For example, in Thessalonica, he used the Old Testament Scriptures (probably the timeline of Daniel 9:24-27) to prove to the local Jews that Jesus was Christ (Acts 17:1-3). Paul frequently quoted the Old Testament throughout his lengthy sermon in Acts chapter 13—see especially verses 27-41). As an aside, Jesus Christ Himself showed in the Old Testament Scriptures where He was predicted (Luke 24:44-46).

Reading Acts 26:22-23 again: “[22] Having therefore obtained help of God, I continue unto this day, witnessing both to small and great, saying none other things than those which the prophets and Moses did say should come: [23] That Christ should suffer, and that he should be the first that should rise from the dead, and should shew light unto the people, and to the Gentiles.”

Friend, to your question about Acts 26:22, “How do we reconcile this, when we know from Scripture that Paul said so much more?” Indeed, the Apostle Paul taught a lot more than what Moses and the prophets wrote. Chiefly, he preached salvation by grace through faith in Jesus Christ alone, apart from the Law of Moses. In Acts 13:38-39, Paul says: “[38] Be it known unto you therefore, men and brethren, that through this man is preached unto you the forgiveness of sins: [39] And by him all that believe are justified from all things, from which ye could not be justified by the law of Moses.” Certainly, that message was not in the Law and the prophets. So, why did Paul declare that he was “saying none other things than those which the prophets and Moses did say should come?”

What Paul was affirming in stating “saying none other things than those which the prophets and Moses did say should come” (Acts 26:22-23) was that he was not preaching something 100 percent foreign to Scripture or the Jewish people. Jesus was Israel’s Messiah, He had suffered, He had died, and He had risen again—all in fulfillment of “Old Testament” prophecy. Paul had not invented any of that. He was not a liar or charlatan. Israel simply did not believe what their own prophets wrote!

“None other things” is specifically tripping people up, so it is necessary to address it now. The confusion is unnecessary. Let me give you a very simple illustration. Suppose someone shared some information with me, and I passed it on to you. I told you, “I am only telling you what they told me.” Does that mean that I told you literally everything they told me? Of course not. I did not quote them word-for-word, and I may have left out some details (for various reasons). My point in declaring to you “I am only telling you what they told me” is my way of proving my statements. I did not invent anything; I merely repeated the basic information so you would learn it. Now take this and apply it to Paul’s situation.

The Old Testament provided some proof of what Paul was preaching. Again, the death of Christ was prophesied. His resurrection was predicted. However, what did these events mean with respect to the Gentiles apart from Israel and her prophetic program? What were Calvary’s significance concerning the Church the Body of Christ and the heavenly places? We must come to the Apostle Paul to learn those truths. The bare minimum of Paul’s preaching—the cross of Christ—was found in the Old Testament. However, that is not all that Paul preached. If you want to think of it as him taking those basic facts and expanding upon them, think of it like that. Go back to Romans 1:1-5 (our opening passage). God had more to say about His Son than what was revealed in the Old Testament, and that is why Paul was saved and commissioned (back to Romans 1:1-5, remember).

As to the ridiculous idea that Paul did not preach mystery truth until after the Book of Acts, we are compelled to share the following. It is quite clear that Paul preached mystery truth throughout the Book of Acts, long before its closure in chapter 28. This can be easily demonstrated from the Scriptures (apart from the idle speculations of “Acts 9/28 Hybrid Theology”). Notice what we discover in Paul’s “Acts” epistles of Romans, 1 & 2 Corinthians, Galatians, and 1 & 2 Thessalonians:

  • We read about the “mystery” of Israel’s blindness mentioned in Romans 11:26. Romans was written around chapter 20 of Acts. Israel’s blindness during the Dispensation of Grace was certainly known and preached during Acts. This was certainly not found in the Old Testament—it is part of the special revelation Jesus Christ gave to Paul. This was written during the Acts period.
  • There is the “mystery” of the Rapture, the gathering together of the Church the Body of Christ to Jesus Christ in heaven, spoken of in 1 Corinthians 15:51. First Corinthians was written around Acts chapters 19-20. Romans and 1 Corinthians were written before Paul arrived at Jerusalem in Acts 20:17 (see Romans 15:25-28 and 1 Corinthians 16:1-5). First Thessalonians 4:13-18 also refers to that secret coming of Christ. These were written during the Acts period.
  • Galatians 5:6 and Galatians 6:15 mention that there is no difference between circumcision (Jew) and uncircumcision (Gentile). This is mystery truth, not found outside of Paul’s ministry, and known during the Book of Acts. Galatians was likely Paul’s first epistle, written as early as chapter 16 or 17 of Acts. Again, these were written during the Acts period.
  • Paul refers to Satan’s lie program taking on a “mystery” form in order to mimic God’s mystery program operating during the Acts period (2 Thessalonians 2:7). Mystery truth is on Paul’s mind and in his teaching ministry during the Acts period.
  • We read about Paul knowing of the “mystery” and yet unable to make it known to the immature, carnal Christians in 1 Corinthians 2:6-8. Once more, this was written during the Acts period.

Also see:
» What is “Acts 9/28 Hybrid Theology?”
» Can you explain the 12 Apostles’ ministry between Acts 7-15?
» Can you explain Paul’s “Acts” ministry?

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, BIBLE VERSIONS AND MANUSCRIPTS, Could you explain “From his shoulders and upward he was higher...?”, Could you explain “From his shoulders and upward he was higher...?”, Could you explain “From his shoulders and upward he was higher...?”, JUST ASKING / CURIOUS QUESTIONS

Could you explain, “From his shoulders and upward he was higher…?”

COULD YOU EXPLAIN, “FROM HIS SHOULDERS AND UPWARD HE WAS HIGHER…?”

by Shawn Brasseaux

The Bible says in 1 Samuel 9:2, “And he had a son, whose name was Saul, a choice young man, and a goodly: and there was not among the children of Israel a goodlier person than he: from his shoulders and upward he was higher than any of the people.” What does it mean that Saul “from his shoulders and upward… was higher than any of the people?” Did he have some physical disfigurement? Let us search the Scriptures!

Some years ago, I read a complaint written by a King James Bible critic (another one such boastful “scholar,” of course). He argued that there were a number of problems with the Authorized Version. One verse he griped about was this description of (future Israeli king) Saul. He contended that the King James translators made it appear that Saul was deformed in some way about his head and shoulders. While the fellow never did explain what he meant, I suppose he was trying to say that the Authorized Version portrayed Saul as having a “giraffe neck?” Based on his words, he was not interested in the truth. He just wanted to argue. However, we ask in faith. What about this nebulous phrase—“from his shoulders and upward he was higher than any of the people?”

If we keep on reading in the Bible text, we come across chapter 10, verse 23: “And they ran and fetched him thence: and when he stood among the people, he was higher than any of the people from his shoulders and upward.” There is more detail here, please notice. Rather than just stopping at chapter 9, verse 2, we appeal to the Bible to supply us with extra information. In reference to Saul standing, “he was higher than any of the people from his shoulders and upward.” Saul’s physical appearance was accentuated when he stood. Could it be any clearer, friends? Is it so difficult to see? Israel’s King Saul was a very tall man!

Using just a little common sense, friends, it is not hard to figure out the meaning of, “from his shoulders and upward he was higher than any of the people.” We have no reason to believe that Saul had a giant head, a long neck, or any other physical disproportionality. First Samuel 10:23 reveals the answer. What made him unique was that he was a very tall man. Taller people literally stand above the crowd (I know from personal experience—“Hi, from high above!”). When a tall person stands in a crowd of average-sized people, seen from a distance, that individual’s head and shoulders seem to “float above” all the other heads. That is the Bible’s language concerning King Saul. He was so tall that his head and shoulders could be seen towering above the crowd of Jews of average height!

Also see:
» What are “emerods?”
» What does “fetch a compass” mean?
» What was wrong with Leah’s eyes?

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, How could Jesus say His killers knew not what they were doing?, How could Jesus say His killers knew not what they were doing?, THE NATION ISRAEL

How could Jesus say His killers knew not what they were doing?

HOW COULD JESUS SAY HIS KILLERS KNEW NOT WHAT THEY WERE DOING?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Jesus, after being nailed to Calvary’s cross, famously declared, “Father, forgive them; for they know not what they do” (Luke 23:34). How could He say this though? Surely, they knew He was dying and that they were responsible. Why was Jesus interceding for His enemies here?

On the day of His crucifixion, it was no secret that the Lord Jesus was slowly dying on Calvary. His tormentors stood before His cross and taunted Him as He suffocated. “And sitting down they watched him there” (Matthew 27:36). People passed by, shaking their heads, saying, “Thou that destroyest the temple, and buildest it in three days, save thyself. If thou be the Son of God, come down from the cross” (verses 39-40). Israel’s religious leaders teased Him, too: “He saved others; himself he cannot save. If he be the King of Israel, let him now come down from the cross, and we will believe him. He trusted in God; let him deliver him now, if he will have him: for he said, I am the Son of God” (verses 41-43). The parallel passages are Mark 15:29-32 and Luke 23:35-39.

Friend, no question about it—unbelieving Israel knew they were killing Jesus. They were aware that they had unjustly sentenced Him to death, to be crucified, to die the death reserved only for the vilest criminal. His agonizing suffering was utterly amusing to them—a sick and twisted form of entertainment! He claimed to be so mighty, so closely associated with God. Now, to them, He was helpless. God was nowhere to be found in His time of need. They had captured Him, and now they were taking His life. They had won… or so it appeared! Yet, in the midst of all this mockery, Jesus pled with His Heavenly Father that His enemies really did not know what they were doing. Huh?!

Someone once aptly referred to Luke 23:34 as descriptive of Israel’s “spiritual insanity.” They had no spiritual eyes to see that He really was the Messiah, their long-promised King. He had fulfilled so many Old Testament prophecies—He was born of a virgin (Isaiah 7:14; Matthew 1:21-23), born in Bethlehem of Judaea (Micah 5:2; Matthew 2:1), born in the timeframe of Daniel 9:24-27, a performer of healing miracles (Isaiah 35:3-6; Matthew 11:5), a preacher of the Gospel of the Kingdom (Isaiah 61:1-3; Luke 4:16-19), and so on. While they knew they were killing Jesus, they really had no idea that they were killing Messiah. Notice how the Book of Acts establishes this point.

After healing the lame man sitting at the Temple gate in Acts chapter 3, the Apostle Peter preached to Israel a rather lengthy sermon. It begins at verse 12 and goes all the way to verse 26 (end of the chapter). We are concerned with the first seven verses of his message. Reading Acts 3:12-18: “[12] And when Peter saw it, he answered unto the people, Ye men of Israel, why marvel ye at this? or why look ye so earnestly on us, as though by our own power or holiness we had made this man to walk? [13] The God of Abraham, and of Isaac, and of Jacob, the God of our fathers, hath glorified his Son Jesus; whom ye delivered up, and denied him in the presence of Pilate, when he was determined to let him go. [14] But ye denied the Holy One and the Just, and desired a murderer to be granted unto you; [15] And killed the Prince of life, whom God hath raised from the dead; whereof we are witnesses. [16] And his name through faith in his name hath made this man strong, whom ye see and know: yea, the faith which is by him hath given him this perfect soundness in the presence of you all. [17] And now, brethren, I wot [understand, know] that through ignorance ye did it, as did also your rulers. [18] But those things, which God before had shewed by the mouth of all his prophets, that Christ should suffer, he hath so fulfilled.”

Notice how Peter in verse 17 picked up on what the Lord Jesus had cried out on Calvary. “Father, forgive them; for they know not what they do.” The Holy Spirit through Peter interpreted that as, “Brethren, I wot [understand, know] that through ignorance ye did it, as did also your rulers.” Of what exactly were they ignorant (unaware)? Why, His Messiahship, of course! Had they known Jesus really was God’s Son (verse 13), had they known Jesus really was “the Holy One and the Just” (verse 14), and had they known Jesus really was “the Prince of Life” (verse 15), they would have never crucified Him! Rather, they would have received Him by faith!

What Father God was doing here in early Acts was giving the nation Israel opportunity to receive the God-Man they had rejected in Matthew through John. The fiery wrath was coming, but they could be ready for Him and survive that judgment, to enter His earthly kingdom unscathed. In other words, Father God indeed forgave Israel as His Son had requested on Calvary. Israel was spiritually confused. Most of the nation was too willfully blinded to see that Jesus really was their Messiah. Early Acts is God offering Israel “a renewed opportunity of repentance.” They did not accept Christ Jesus back when He was on Earth. However, now that He is in Heaven, ready to return and judge them, Peter is urging them to take advantage of God’s grace. You can read the rest of Acts chapter 3 to learn what else Peter preached, and how Israel responded in Acts 4:4.

CONCLUSION

The Jews knew they were killing Jesus, but they did not recognize they were killing Messiah/Christ. Spiritual blindness, Satan’s policy of evil, had completely disoriented them. Thus, Jesus pled from Calvary’s cross for Father God to forgive them. In early Acts, Father God honored Jesus’ request. He sent the Holy Spirit, and the Holy Spirit empowered the Apostles to preach to Israel and confirm that word with miracles, affording her another opportunity to believe on the Lord Jesus Christ whom God had resurrected. Did all of Israel convert to Christ in early Acts? For the answer, read our study below about the Lord Jesus standing in Heaven in Acts chapter 7.

Also see:
» Why did Jesus Christ stand in Acts 7:55-56?
» Who, crucified on Calvary, mocked Jesus?
» Have I blasphemed against the Holy Ghost?