Monthly Archives: August 2021

GRACE (CHRISTIAN) LIVING, JUST ASKING / CURIOUS QUESTIONS, What does “Anathema Maranatha” mean in 1 Corinthians 16:22?

What does “Anathema Maranatha” mean in 1 Corinthians 16:22?

WHAT DOES “ANATHEMA MARANATHA” MEAN IN 1 CORINTHIANS 16:22?

by Shawn Brasseaux

The Apostle Paul, near the conclusion of this epistle, wrote, “If any man love not the Lord Jesus Christ, let him be Anathema Maranatha” (1 Corinthians 16:22). What does “Anathema Maranatha” mean?

Firstly, “Anathema” is Greek; “Maranatha” is Aramaic (Hebrew with some Gentile/Babylonian influence). These were two of the many languages the Apostle Paul spoke. Secondly, by searching the Epistle of 1 Corinthians, we can gather clues to stitch together a Scriptural definition of “Anathema Maranatha.”

“ANATHEMA”

This Greek word appears six times in the Textus Receptus (the basis for our King James New Testament). Once it was rendered, “We have bound ourselves under a great curse” (Acts 23:14, Paul’s enemies vehemently determined to take his life). Four times, it was translated “accursed” (Romans 9:3; 1 Corinthians 12:3; Galatians 1:8-9). Once, in 1 Corinthians 16:22, it was left untranslated—“anathema” (the verse now under discussion).

Galatians 1:8-9 is helpful here: “But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed [anathema]. As we said before, so say I now again, If any man preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed [anathema].” The language is strong here, but it is warranted because false teachers have slipped into the Galatian churches under the guise of “Christianity.” God the Holy Spirit thunders here in this Epistle, “Let those false teachers be excommunicated, excluded, removed!” The Galatian Christians were to have nothing further to do with these denominationalists, for these religious traditionalists were using the Law of Moses to corrupt the Grace of God. Thousands of church leaders are guilty of this same practice, and we would do well to apply Galatians 1:8-9 to them too! See also Romans 16:17-20, 1 Timothy 6:3-5, 2 Timothy 3:1-5, and Titus 3:9-11.

When we come to 1 Corinthians 16:22, which is actually just before Galatians chapter 1, it should not be difficult to discern what “Anathema” means. The idea is “banned, removed, expelled.” Considering the mentality and lifestyles of the Corinthian Christians, we can easily surmise false teachers have corrupted them too. Read 1 and 2 Corinthians to behold the worst bunch of Christians you will ever see in Scripture! Greek philosophers, legalists (just as in Galatia), and other proponents of bad doctrine have defiled the saints at Corinth. Paul’s two epistles to Corinth are designed to bring these saints back to the truth, to mature them in the faith, that they be no more fleshly or worldly. One of Paul’s closing remarks in 1 Corinthians is found in 16:22: “If any man love not the Lord Jesus Christ, let him be Anathema….” Those who do not love the Lord Jesus Christ—especially those who do not love His doctrine communicated through Paul—are to be isolated or detached from the Corinthian assembly. Any heretics, any apostates, any unbelievers, or even any Christians acting like unbelievers, are to be expelled—lest the assembly become even more depraved and further ensnared in Satan’s policy of evil. Read 1 Corinthians 5:1-13, with special emphasis on verse 2 and verses 7-13. “Therefore put away [divorce, separate] from among yourselves that wicked person.”

“MARANATHA”

Some have contended the Aramaic (and transliterated into Greek) phrase “Maran atha” means (and can only mean), “The Lord has come.” They thus have Paul referring to Jesus’ earthly ministry in 1 Corinthians 16:22 (the present perfect, an action already completed). Others claim the intended tense is simple future: “The Lord will come.” Here, Paul would be speaking of Jesus’ return (something imminent). When writing “Maranatha,” is Paul speaking of a previous coming of Christ or a future one?

Personally, again, this author would view 1 Corinthians 16:22 in light of what has already come before in the Epistle. Read chapter 1, verses 7-8: “So that ye come behind in no gift; waiting for the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ: Who shall also confirm you unto the end, that ye may be blameless in the day of our Lord Jesus Christ.” Would this be Christ’s earthly ministry, something that has already happened? Of course not! Paul is writing to the Corinthians a few decades after Calvary; Christ’s earthly ministry is long over. They are awaiting Jesus’ return, the Rapture, “the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and… our gathering together unto him” (2 Thessalonians 2:1). Based on 1 Corinthians 1:7-8, we would take “Maranatha” to mean a future coming of Christ not a past coming.

CONCLUSION

“Anathema Maranatha” simply means, “withdraw or separate from all who love not the Lord Jesus Christ, for that same Lord Jesus Christ is coming.” These saints would certainly not want to be fellowshipping with “questionable characters” when their Saviour came back, would they? “Let your moderation [self-control, reasonableness] be known unto all men. The Lord is at hand” (Philippians 4:5). In other words, live like the Lord is returning in the next few seconds! The nation Israel was given basically the same instructions in light of Christ’s Second Coming to end Daniel’s 70th Week (see Matthew 24:42-51; Mark 13:33-37; Luke 12:35-48). Whether the prophetic program (Israel) or the mystery program (us, the Church the Body of Christ), all saints should be conducting themselves according to God’s words to them, ready to meet their Saviour whenever He appears, doing what He left them to do, when He does return! (And, remember, “Maranatha!,” the Lord is coming back!)

SUPPLEMENTAL: WHY LEAVE IT UNTRANSLATED?

The King James scholars are not here for us to ask them why they left these words untranslated, but it may be a case of euphony. “Anathema Maranatha” is a memorable word combination that sounds pleasant to the ears, is it not? Once you understand its meaning, you never forget it. May we thus be careful to remember to keep our distance from those who do not love the Lord Jesus Christ (especially His words to us, the Dispensation of Grace, Paul’s epistles of Romans through Philemon), for that same Lord Jesus Christ is coming again and we want Him to find us pure in doctrine and lifestyle!

Also see:
» What does “Lord of Sabaoth” mean?
» What does God mean, “I am Alpha and Omega?”
» Why does Daniel 5:25 say “Upharsin” but Daniel 5:28 say “Peres?”

Can you define “carriage” in the King James Bible?, JUST ASKING / CURIOUS QUESTIONS

Can you define “carriage” in the King James Bible?

CAN YOU DEFINE “CARRIAGE” IN THE KING JAMES BIBLE?

by Shawn Brasseaux

In the Authorized Version, the word “carriage” is found five times:

  • Judges 18:21: “So they turned and departed, and put the little ones and the cattle and the carriage before them.”
  • 1 Samuel 17:22: “And David left his carriage in the hand of the keeper of the carriage, and ran into the army, and came and saluted his brethren.”
  • Isaiah 10:28: “He is come to Aiath, he is passed to Migron; at Michmash he hath laid up his carriages:….”
  • Isaiah 46:1: “Bel boweth down, Nebo stoopeth, their idols were upon the beasts, and upon the cattle: your carriages were heavy loaden; they are a burden to the weary beast.”
  • Acts 21:15: “And after those days we took up our carriages, and went up to Jerusalem.”

When we see this word in the Holy Scriptures, we should think beyond something like a wagon, buggy, cart, or coach. The idea is not a vehicle carrying people, but rather people carrying goods. “Carriage” in the King James Bible is that which is carried—luggage, baggage, suitcases, trunks, and/or their contents (treasures, weapons, clothes, and other supplies). We must remember the Authorized Version King James Bible was produced in England, as clearly reflected here. According to The Oxford English Dictionary, “carriage” in British English means, “the conveying of items or merchandise from one place to another.” (Which is basically what we have just used Bible verses to teach.)

Also see:
» Is “corn” a mistake in the King James Bible?
» Why does the King James Bible say “nephews” instead of “grandchildren” in 1 Timothy 5:4?
» Is the King James word “borrow” a “mistranslation” in Exodus 3:22?
» Is “rooms” a King James Bible mistake in Matthew 23:6?
» What does “under colour” mean in Acts 27:30?

THE NATION ISRAEL, What is the “senate” in Acts 5:21?

What is the “senate” in Acts 5:21?

WHAT IS THE “SENATE” IN ACTS 5:21?

by Shawn Brasseaux

The term appears only once in the Authorized Version, Acts 5:21: “And when they heard that, they entered into the temple early in the morning, and taught. But the high priest came, and they that were with him, and called the council together, and all the senate of the children of Israel, and sent to the prison to have them brought.” What is this “senate?”

In early Acts, the 12 Apostles are performing miracles to bear record of Jesus’ resurrection. Such is the case in chapter 5: “[16] There came also a multitude out of the cities round about unto Jerusalem, bringing sick folks, and them which were vexed with unclean spirits: and they were healed every one. [17] Then the high priest rose up, and all they that were with him, (which is the sect of the Sadducees,) and were filled with indignation, [18] And laid their hands on the apostles, and put them in the common prison. [19] But the angel of the Lord by night opened the prison doors, and brought them forth, and said, [20] Go, stand and speak in the temple to the people all the words of this life.”

Notice, the High Priest—Israel’s head religious leader—is a Sadducee (verse 17). The Jewish sect known as the Sadducees did not believe in the miraculous or supernatural—angels, spirits, and resurrection (Matthew 22:23; Mark 12:18; Luke 20:27; Acts 23:8). Consequently, they took great offense when the Apostles preached about Jesus coming back from the dead! “And as they spake unto the people, the priests, and the captain of the temple, and the Sadducees, came upon them, Being grieved that they taught the people, and preached through Jesus the resurrection from the dead” (Acts 4:1-2).

In chapter 5, the Apostles have performed additional miracles, further incensing Israel’s apostate religious leaders. Therefore, they throw the Apostles into the common prison with the worst criminals, but the Lord sends an angel to rescue them. Again, the Apostles are out preaching in public. The apostate Jewish leaders, unaware of the escape, assemble the “council” and the “senate” to try the Apostles. “Council” is the Sanhedrin, the 71-member Jewish Supreme Court (of which the High Priest was head). (For more information, see our “Sanhedrin” study linked at the end of this article.) As for the “senate,” this would not simply be a portion of the Jewish leaders but rather all of them. The full Sanhedrin—each and every member—is implied in the “senate.”

“Senate” is from the Latin word “senatus,” derived from “senex” (“old man”). All the old men leading the nation Israel have assembled to persecute God’s preachers. The Greek term rendered “senate” is “gerousia,” from “geron” (“old”). Our English word “gerontology,” the scientific study of aging and problems of old people, finds its origin here. The chief problem of these “old people” in Acts 5:21 is unbelief!

Also see:
» Who were the “elders?”
» What was the “Sanhedrin?”
» Who were the “scribes?”
» Who were the “Sadducees?”
» Who were the “Pharisees?”
» Who were the “chief priests?”

GRACE (CHRISTIAN) LIVING, What is “dissimulation” in Romans 12:9?

What is “dissimulation” in Romans 12:9?

WHAT IS “DISSIMULATION” IN ROMANS 12:9?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Read verses 1 and 2 of Romans chapter 12: “I beseech you therefore, brethren, by the mercies of God, that ye present your bodies a living sacrifice, holy, acceptable unto God, which is your reasonable service. And be not conformed to this world: but be ye transformed by the renewing of your mind, that ye may prove what is that good, and acceptable, and perfect, will of God.” The renewed mind—the clear thinking that the Word of God’s Grace brings—produces the lifestyle delineated in Romans chapters 12–16. Here, we want to focus on verse 9: “Let love be without dissimulation. Abhor that which is evil; cleave to that which is good.” One such consequence of new life in Christ is “love without dissimulation.” What exactly is this?

Of course, we can see the word “simulation” (fakery) within the word “dissimulation,” can we not? “Dissimulation” simply means “the process of disguising or concealing under a false appearance.” In other words, it is hypocrisy. Our love should be without two-facedness or a false front. An example of faking love can be seen in the following verse about simulating righteousness: “And they watched him, and sent forth spies, which should feign themselves just men, that they might take hold of his words, that so they might deliver him unto the power and authority of the governor” (Luke 20:20). These men “feigned” (pretended) to be of good standing, religious and upright. However, their “love for the truth” was actually a mask for their hatred of the Lord Jesus Christ, and they were willing to lie just to set traps for Him!

Unfortunately, what is lacking in so many “Christian” assemblies is genuine love—and this has been a problem even since Bible days! What we are discussing here goes beyond fuzzy feelings, mere sentiment, romance, and some flippant or shallow expressions of affection. In the Bible, love is the idea of one person seeking another person’s highest good. For example, “But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us” (Romans 5:8). Father God offers us His love, for it is worthy of our acceptance and trust. He sought our highest good—the salvation of our souls from sin, death, Hell, and the Lake of Fire—by sending His Son Jesus Christ to die for our sins!

We must always be careful to love without dissimulation. This means to actually care for another person—particularly fellow members of the Body of Christ. We are not referring to mindlessly repeating, “I love you,” or claiming to love the person when we really hate him or her. Neither are we considering the attitude of, “Since you have done something nice for me, since you have loved me, so I will love you.” In 2 Corinthians 6:6, “love unfeigned” was one of the Apostle Paul’s motivations in ministry. The Holy Spirit worked in and through him to preach and teach sound Bible doctrine, that lost souls would come to Jesus Christ by faith and Christian souls would allow Him to live His life and through them by faith. Here in Paul’s ministry and life was genuine love in action, an internal working of God—not some fake “love” originating from sinful flesh, designed to flatter people, get something from them, make them believe a lie or perceive a false impression.

Returning to Romans, we re-read chapter 12, verse 9, with its subsequent verse: “[9] Let love be without dissimulation. Abhor that which is evil; cleave to that which is good. [10] Be kindly affectioned one to another with brotherly love; in honour preferring one another;….” Again, here is the kindness of true Christian love. A similar exhortation is Ephesians 4:32: “And be ye kind one to another, tenderhearted, forgiving one another, even as God for Christ’s sake hath forgiven you.” As God forgave us in Christ, as He forgave us because of Christ, so we forgive others. Like He loves us in Christ, as He loves us because of Christ, so we love others. We seek their highest good, as He sought our highest good at Calvary. Unless we have a clear understanding of these simple truths of grace living, however, we will have nothing but empty religious tradition—and religion is nothing but dissimulation anyway!

“Owe no man any thing, but to love one another: for he that loveth another hath fulfilled the law. For this, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not kill, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, Thou shalt not covet; and if there be any other commandment, it is briefly comprehended in this saying, namely, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself. Love worketh no ill to his neighbour: therefore love is the fulfilling of the law”
(Romans 13:8-10).

Also see:
» What is meant by, “Love thy neighbour as thyself?”
» Why did my Christian loved one not share the Gospel with me when I was unsaved?
» What if I was never thanked?
» Should we hate the denominational people who misled us?
» As Christians, should we hate our parents?
» What is true forgiveness?

Can you explain Habakkuk 2:2?, JUST ASKING / CURIOUS QUESTIONS

Can you explain Habakkuk 2:2?

CAN YOU EXPLAIN HABAKKUK 2:2?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Let us consider Habakkuk chapter 2: “[2] And the LORD answered me, and said, Write the vision, and make it plain upon tables, that he may run that readeth it. [3] For the vision is yet for an appointed time, but at the end it shall speak, and not lie: though it tarry, wait for it; because it will surely come, it will not tarry.” Can you explain, “make it plain upon tables, that he may run that readeth it?” Yes!

The LORD God directs the Prophet Habakkuk to write on “tables”—that is, stone tablets or plaques—what he sees in a vision. His words are to be “plain,” distinctly engraved and therefore easy to understand. We want to focus, however, on the rest of verse 2, that which seems less clear. Why is the reader said to “run?”

Here are three common explanations:

  1. The message is so clear anyone running by the “tables” could easily read and understand it.
  2. The message is so simple the reader can run and proclaim to others what he has learned from the “tables.”
  3. The message is so clear the reader can “run his eye” over the “tables” with ease.

Frankly, none of these views does the verse justice. A better way to expound the passage is this: “Habakkuk should write the vision, and make it plain upon tables, that the reader be able to understand and quickly (speedily—‘run’ as in rapid movement) adjust his thinking and behavior accordingly.” In other words, God’s words motivate whoever reads them to conform to that Divine revelation. “I will run the way of thy [the LORD’S] commandments, when thou shalt enlarge my heart” (Psalm 119:32). See also verse 59: “I thought on my ways, and turned my feet unto thy [the LORD’S] testimonies.” Unless the language of the Scriptures is clear enough to introduce spiritual light, God’s Word will profit no one, so Habakkuk was commanded to be plain in his message. It was urgent that his audience reform their minds and ways!

Also see:
» Should ministers study Scripture to prepare for teaching?
» Must we follow along in the Bible?
» I have trusted Christ, so why do I see things in Scripture I have never noticed before?
» Is it normal for me to be “too busy” for daily Bible reading?

Can you explain “let your loins be girded” in Luke 12:35?

Can you explain, “Let your loins be girded,” in Luke 12:35?

CAN YOU EXPLAIN, “LET YOUR LOINS BE GIRDED,” IN LUKE 12:35?

by Shawn Brasseaux

“Let your loins be girded about, and your lights burning; And ye yourselves like unto men that wait for their lord, when he will return from the wedding; that when he cometh and knocketh, they may open unto him immediately” (Luke 12:35-36). In what sense are their “loins” to be “girded about?”

In Bible days, the Jews wore outer garments similar to robes. A belt or sash—a girdle—was used to fasten the garment closer to the body. Otherwise, being loose, it would flap about and hinder physical movement (preventing work, running, and so on). For example, “And the hand of the LORD was on Elijah; and he girded up his loins, and ran before Ahab to the entrance of Jezreel” (1 Kings 18:46). Unless his outer garment were tucked in, Elijah would not have been an agile runner. To physically gird up the loins (hips, groin, waist) meant to take a material belt and tightly secure the clothes to the flesh and blood body. In the case of Luke 12:35, the command is figurative and spiritual, applying to the inner man. Be ready to act internally! The girdle here is truth, sound Bible doctrine, what will keep Israel thinking properly as she awaits Jesus’ Second Coming. Her mind and heart (spirit and soul) should be “tied down,” not wandering about!

A similar exhortation, also concerning Christ’s return, is found in 1 Peter chapter 1: “[13] Wherefore gird up the loins of your mind, be sober, and hope to the end for the grace that is to be brought unto you at the revelation of Jesus Christ; [14] As obedient children, not fashioning yourselves according to the former lusts in your ignorance: [15] But as he which hath called you is holy, so be ye holy in all manner of conversation; [16] Because it is written, Be ye holy; for I am holy.” Even we in the Dispensation of Grace are instructed, “…having your loins girt about with truth” (Ephesians 6:14). Whether in the prophetic program (Israel’s Little Flock), or the mystery program (us, the Church the Body of Christ), the renewed mind should always guide and motivate the saints (Romans 12:1-2; Ephesians 4:20-24; Colossians 3:10). If the loins of our mind are not secured according to sound Bible doctrine, we will drift about with false doctrine and become disoriented, thereby being rendered unfit for God’s ministry (but quite helpful to Satan’s!).

Also see:
» Can you explain, “We are in the world, but not of the world?”
» Why did Jesus tell Israel they do not know the date of His return?
» Does doctrine really matter?

JUST ASKING / CURIOUS QUESTIONS, Whose are the “words” of 1 Samuel 3:19?

Whose are the “words” of 1 Samuel 3:19?

WHOSE ARE THE “WORDS” OF 1 SAMUEL 3:19?

by Shawn Brasseaux

First, let us read the verse about which we have the question: “And Samuel grew, and the LORD was with him, and did let none of his words fall to the ground.” Since there are two male individuals here—Samuel and the LORD—the expression “his words” is rather ambiguous. Is it Samuel not letting the words of the LORD (that is, the Scriptures) fall to the ground? Or, is it the LORD not letting the words of Samuel (that is, his preaching) fall to the ground? What does “fall to the ground” imply anyway?

Verse 20 seems to resolve the matter for us: “And all Israel from Dan even to Beersheba knew that Samuel was established to be a prophet of the LORD.” If Samuel were a prophet of the LORD, he needed authentication or validation—namely, his prophecies fulfilled. He took in God’s words (especially the Law of Moses) and subsequently preached in accordance with them. That is to say, God let none of Samuel’s prophetic words fall to the ground. All of Samuel’s prophecies came true (they were not trampled on the ground or considered worthless). Accordingly, everyone within the borders of Israel—from Dan (northernmost) to Beersheba (southernmost)— recognized Samuel as God’s spokesman! Thus was the LORD’S promise to the evil Priest Eli fulfilled. Whereas he and his idolatrous sons were banned from the priesthood, Samuel was a faithful minister in their stead (cf. 1 Samuel 2:27-36).

Also see:
» How did Eli honor his sons more than he honor God?
» Why does Peter start with Samuel in Acts 3:24?
» Was the Apostle Paul a false prophet?
» How do we identify false teachers?

Can you explain “importunity” in Luke 11:8?, THE NATION ISRAEL

Can you explain “importunity” in Luke 11:8?

CAN YOU EXPLAIN “IMPORTUNITY” IN LUKE 11:8?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Certainly!

The context is the Parable of the Needy Friend, which we read now in chapter 11 of Luke: “[5] And he said unto them, Which of you shall have a friend, and shall go unto him at midnight, and say unto him, Friend, lend me three loaves; [6] For a friend of mine in his journey is come to me, and I have nothing to set before him? [7] And he from within shall answer and say, Trouble me not: the door is now shut, and my children are with me in bed; I cannot rise and give thee. [8] I say unto you, Though he will not rise and give him, because he is his friend, yet because of his importunity he will rise and give him as many as he needeth. [9] And I say unto you, Ask, and it shall be given you; seek, and ye shall find; knock, and it shall be opened unto you. [10] For every one that asketh receiveth; and he that seeketh findeth; and to him that knocketh it shall be opened. [11] If a son shall ask bread of any of you that is a father, will he give him a stone? or if he ask a fish, will he for a fish give him a serpent? [12] Or if he shall ask an egg, will he offer him a scorpion? [13] If ye then, being evil, know how to give good gifts unto your children: how much more shall your heavenly Father give the Holy Spirit to them that ask him?”

After delivering the “Our Father” Prayer as presented in Luke (11:1-4), Christ Jesus further enlightens Israel’s believing remnant concerning His Heavenly Father’s will for them. In the above parable, He describes Messianic Jews awaiting the coming of the Holy Spirit on the Day of Pentecost (Acts chapter 2), an event several months away. The outpouring of the Spirit of God is necessary to ratify the New Covenant, empowering Israel to be God’s people in the Earth and do His will in the Earth (cf. Ezekiel 36:25-28; Joel 2:28-29; Acts 2:14-18). Jesus knows the Little Flock (Israel’s believing remnant) has needs to be met, and the passage currently in view underscores His awareness of that fact.

We are interested in verse 8: “I say unto you, Though he will not rise and give him, because he is his friend, yet because of his importunity he will rise and give him as many as he needeth.” Although the man in bed wishes not to answer his door, his friend is outside knocking, and he finally gives in to the request because the friend is engaging in “importunity.” What exactly is that? This English word is derived from the Latin “importunus,” simply meaning “unsuitable, troublesome, relentless.” He will not stop knocking because his need is urgent! The Greek term is “anaideia”—literally “no shame, no honor, no modesty, no bashfulness, no reverence, no regard for others, no respect.”

If a sinner will inconveniently rise out of bed at midnight to help a bothersome and rude friend, how much more will Almighty God (loving, sinless, merciful, gracious, et cetera) pour out the Holy Spirit on believing Israel during the early Acts period to enable them to accomplish His ministry? The point is well driven!

Also see:
» Should we recite The “Our Father” Prayer?
» How is the Holy Spirit “the Comforter?”
» Was the Holy Spirit really given in John 20:22?
» Why did the Samaritan believers not receive the Holy Spirit upon believing in Acts 8?
» Is the Holy Spirit a Person or a force?
» How should I pray?
» What about hindered and unanswered prayer?
» How can I have an effectual prayer life?

JUST ASKING / CURIOUS QUESTIONS, What does “skin for skin” mean in Job 2:4?

What does “skin for skin” mean in Job 2:4?

WHAT DOES “SKIN FOR SKIN” MEAN IN JOB 2:4?

by Shawn Brasseaux

“And Satan answered the LORD, and said, Skin for skin, yea, all that a man hath will he give for his life” (Job 2:4). What exactly was the Devil communicating here?

To begin, it helps to establish some background, as found in chapter 1 of Job. Job is a righteous and prosperous Jew, living in the time between the Books of Genesis and Exodus. Satan desires to attack him, and does so after obtaining the LORD’S permission. Although Job cannot be harmed physically, he loses his family and possessions: his oxen and asses are stolen, the fire of God comes down and kills his sheep, his camels are stolen, and even all seven of his sons and all three of his daughters die. Only a handful of his hundreds of servants remain alive. Job does not curse or slander God, but rather blesses Him (Job 1:20-22).

In chapter 2, Satan again stands before God. Read verses 3-5: “[3] And the LORD said unto Satan, Hast thou considered my servant Job, that there is none like him in the earth, a perfect and an upright man, one that feareth God, and escheweth evil? and still he holdeth fast his integrity, although thou movedst me against him, to destroy him without cause. [4] And Satan answered the LORD, and said, Skin for skin, yea, all that a man hath will he give for his life. [5] But put forth thine hand now, and touch his bone and his flesh, and he will curse thee to thy face.” According to Satan, Job should suffer more so the “real” him can be exposed. While Job has not railed against God, if he himself should experience bodily pain, then God’s “righteous” man will be shown to be a hypocrite. (Satan’s mind is perverted, but what else do we expect?!)

At this point, we have encountered that unique expression again, “skin for skin” (Job 2:4). The entire verse is, “And Satan answered the LORD, and said, Skin for skin, yea, all that a man hath will he give for his life.” Paraphrased, Satan replies to the LORD, “The only reason Job has not yet cursed You yet is because he himself is still alive and healthy. He is willing to give up the skin of his children, animals, and servants, that he perish not.” In other words, Job is allegedly insensitive or callous. To say it yet another way, “Job’s children, servants, and animals died, but he himself remains untouched, which is why he does not curse You, God! Those are unsubstantial losses to him, so they do not move him to the point of revealing his ‘true’ self. However, let his physical body suffer—then he will blaspheme against You and You will finally see the ‘real’ Job!”

Even today, we use English phrases such as, “He will save his own skin” or “She saved his skin.” These are descriptions of rescues from dangers or difficulties concerning the physical (flesh and blood) body, the syntactical structure being related to Satan’s wording.

Saints, please remember us in your monthly giving—these websites do cost money to run! 🙂 You can donate securely here: https://www.paypal.me/ShawnBrasseaux, or email me at arcministries@gmail.com. Do not forget about Bible Q&A booklets for sale at https://arcgraceministries.org/in-print/booklets-bible-q-a/. Thanks to all who give to and pray for us! By the way, ministry emails have really been backed up this year. I am handling them as much as humanly possible. Thanks for your patience. 🙂

Also see:
» Does God chasten us when we sin?
» Is God chastening me?
» Why does God let Satan exist?
» Where in the Bible did God give Satan domain over the Earth?

Can you explain the “single” eye and the “evil” eye?, JUST ASKING / CURIOUS QUESTIONS

Can you explain the “single” eye and the “evil” eye?

CAN YOU EXPLAIN THE “SINGLE” EYE AND THE “EVIL” EYE?

by Shawn Brasseaux

We find this contrast twice in Scripture:

  • Matthew 6:22-23: “[22] The light of the body is the eye: if therefore thine eye be single, thy whole body shall be full of light. [23] But if thine eye be evil, thy whole body shall be full of darkness. If therefore the light that is in thee be darkness, how great is that darkness!”
  • Luke 11:34-36: “[34] The light of the body is the eye: therefore when thine eye is single, thy whole body also is full of light; but when thine eye is evil, thy body also is full of darkness. [35] Take heed therefore that the light which is in thee be not darkness. [36] If thy whole body therefore be full of light, having no part dark, the whole shall be full of light, as when the bright shining of a candle doth give thee light.”

The “light” can be understood as a lamp. Through the physical eye, the physical body is aware of its surroundings. If we take this and apply it to the spiritual realm, we understand the spiritual eye allows the spiritual body to be aware of its environment. The “single eye” refers to a clear eye that has one image in view as opposed to double vision. It is good because it sees reality instead of an illusion. The single eye sees truth. On the other hand, the “evil eye” is the bad or deceived eye. It is not focused on one image but a combination of images, which is nothing but error, fleshliness (carnality), and worldliness. Such vision—as in the physical world, so in the spiritual world—will lead to confusion and disorientation.

We find two other references to the “evil eye” in Scripture. One is Matthew 20:15: “Is it not lawful for me to do what I will with mine own? Is thine eye evil, because I am good?” The other is Mark 7:22, the “evil eye” being one of the sins proceeding from man’s wicked heart: “Thefts, covetousness, wickedness, deceit, lasciviousness, an evil eye, blasphemy, pride, foolishness:….” If you read the context of the Matthew verse, you will see the “evil eye” refers to materialism (greediness, envy). Also, see Matthew 6:19-34, which is the context of the verse cited at the beginning of this study. It too issues the following warning: no one can serve God and mammon (wealth deified or idolized).

By mentioning the “single” eye and the “evil” eye, the Lord Jesus Christ advises Israel to receive the spiritual light He is providing them during His earthly ministry. Remember, “Thy word is a lamp unto my feet, and a light unto my path…. The entrance of thy words giveth light; it giveth understanding unto the simple” (Psalm 119:105,130). However, apostate Israel is in unbelief, and is content to be in spiritual darkness. Satan’s evil world system has distracted them from the truth, God’s words to them. They refuse to hear, see, and believe. This is applicable not only to the nation Israel as a whole, but also individual Jews who reject Jesus as Messiah/Christ. They failed to appreciate Him because they were not thinking properly. Consequently, they murdered Him on Calvary’s cross!

While not written to or about us, the doctrine contained herein is transdispensational. It is true in any and every age, for Satan’s policy of evil is always designed to sidetrack people from listening to and believing God’s revelation to them. Brethren, may we have a “single” eye in this the Dispensation of the Grace of God—rightly dividing the Word of Truth (2 Timothy 2:15), understanding the Apostle Paul is Jesus Christ’s spokesman to us (Romans 11:13), heeding and trusting Romans through Philemon. Otherwise, we have an “evil” eye…and darkness…and confusion…and disorientation…and Christendom (Christendumb)!

Also see:
» What is the “madness” of Luke 6:11?
» What is a “lunatick?”
» How did Israel manipulate Moses to murder Messiah?
» If they were fulfilling Bible prophecy, how are Christ’s murderers culpable of wrongdoing?
» Who was more responsible for Jesus’ death—the Jews or the Romans?
» How could Israel welcome Messiah on Palm Sunday but then demand His death later that week?