Category Archives: BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED

Must Christian women wear head coverings?

MUST WOMEN WEAR HEAD COVERINGS IN THE LOCAL CHURCH?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Must Christian women wear head coverings in the local church in light of 1 Corinthians 11:1-16? Let us study this peculiar, and sometimes confusing, passage and see what the Scriptures really say. As always, context is key to clarity!

Verses 1 and 2 of 1 Corinthians chapter 11 are self-explanatory: “[1] Be ye followers of me, even as I also am of Christ. [2] Now I praise you, brethren, that ye remember me in all things, and keep the ordinances, as I delivered them to you.” In light of the verses of the previous chapter, the Apostle Paul confessed that he wanted these Christians in Corinth to follow his example as he followed Jesus Christ (Philippians 3:17; 2 Thessalonians 3:7-10), since he was God’s spokesman to them (Paul is “the apostle of the Gentiles;” Romans 11:13). The Apostle praised them for remembering the doctrine he delivered to them, the doctrine they believed. Even though we are under grace not law (Romans 6:14-15), Paul’s epistles of Romans through Philemon give us guidelines regarding Christian living and doctrine (1 Thessalonians 4:2, 2 Thessalonians 3:10, et cetera).

Verse 3 begins a new thought. The Holy Spirit through Paul focuses on a doctrine that the Corinthians were not understanding, a doctrine that needed to be corrected in their minds: “But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God.”

The overall issue regarding head coverings is here identified as headship. Every man is to submit to Jesus Christ’s authority and every woman is to submit to male authority (Genesis 3:16; Ephesians 5:22-23; Colossians 3:18; 1 Timothy 2:12-15), just as Jesus Christ willingly submitted to God the Father’s authority (Matthew 26:39,42; Philippians 2:5-11; Hebrews 10:5-9). Please note that the issue is not superiority, but authority/leadership.

Verse 4: “Every man praying or prophesying, having his head covered, dishonoureth his head.”

In the Corinthian culture, a head covering denoted submission; likewise, the lack of a head covering symbolized dominance/leadership. The Bible says that a Christian man in Corinth did not need a head covering in the local assembly because God had placed him in the leadership position. Remember that the lack of a head covering meant leadership, so if a Christian man wore a head covering in the local assembly in Corinth, he would be acting like a submissive woman, reversing gender roles, causing confusion—in other words, “dishonoring his head,” acting like a coward, ignoring his God-given role of leadership. Verse 7 continues: “For a man indeed ought not to cover his head, forasmuch as he is the image and glory of God.” God had put him in charge of the assembly; by behaving in the leadership capacity God gave him, the man was glorifying God. For the Corinthian man to put on the head covering was to dishonor God, because he was indicating he was not fulfilling his leadership role.

Verses 5-6: “[5] But every woman that prayeth or prophesieth with her head uncovered dishonoureth her head: for that is even all one as if she were shaven. [6] For if the woman be not covered, let her also be shorn: but if it be a shame for a woman to be shorn or shaven, let her be covered.”

A Christian woman, however, needed to have a head covering, a veil, in the local culture of Corinth, lest she bring reproach to Christ. In Corinth, an unveiled woman was equivalent to a woman with a shaved head—the infamous pagan priestess prostitutes in Corinth had shaved heads! The argument is that if it is shameful for the Christian woman in Corinth to have a shaved head, it is equally shameful for her to have an uncovered/unveiled head. The Apostle Paul urged the female believers in Corinth not to bring reproach to the name of Christ by dressing or behaving immodestly. A Christian woman should not enter the local assembly if her appearance resembled a presumptuous or arrogant woman (a “manly” woman, a woman who did not submit to male headship in the assembly). The overall idea was for Christian women not to resemble or behave like prostitutes, wild or unruly women, feminists, authoritarian women who usurped male leadership, et cetera.

Verses 7-11: “[7] For a man indeed ought not to cover his head, forasmuch as he is the image and glory of God: but the woman is the glory of the man. [8] For the man is not of the woman: but the woman of the man. [9] Neither was the man created for the woman; but the woman for the man. [10] For this cause ought the woman to have power on her head because of the angels. [11] Nevertheless neither is the man without the woman, neither the woman without the man, in the Lord. [12] For as the woman is of the man, even so is the man also by the woman; but all things of God.”

In respect to creation (see verses 8-9 especially), in the order the God of the Bible ordained in the home/marriage relationship, the man is appointed to leadership capacity, not to bully his wife or his children, but rather to guide them in God’s ways as Jesus Christ leads us the Church His body in His truth using love, gentleness, discretion, and so on (see Ephesians 5:21–6:4; Colossians 3:18-21). The man’s behavior was the reflection of God (verse 7)—after all, God had placed him in authority. The woman’s behavior was the reflection of the man’s spiritual leadership (verse 7)—she was to follow the man’s example. How the man behaves will either glorify or dishonor God, and how the woman behaves will either bring praise to her husband or cause him shame (verse 7).

Verse 10 of 1 Corinthians 11 is fascinating: “For this cause ought the woman to have power on her head because of the angels.” How angels are affected here is an interesting concept that many people overlook. In order to learn more about what the Lord Jesus Christ is doing, angels watch us Christians live our lives. As 1 Corinthians 4:9 says: “For I think that God hath set forth us the apostles last, as it were appointed to death: for we are made a spectacle unto the world, and to angels, and to men.” The angels watched the apostles, just as people watched the apostles. And Ephesians 3:10 reminds us that the angels watch the members of the Body of Christ: “To the intent that now unto the principalities and powers in heavenly places might be known by the church the manifold wisdom of God,….” In 1 Peter 1:12, we read “which things the angels desire to look into”—angels are curious. In the context of Peter’s words, angels attempted to understand the prophecies about Jesus Christ’s sufferings and His glorious reign (verses 10-11). Nevertheless, these angels could not figure out the Old Testament Messianic prophecies until after they were fulfilled in Christ’s life and then the apostles preached those truths (and it was then that the angels learned God’s wisdom). Even today, angels still cannot read the Bible like we can, so they watch us Christians have lives that reflect sound Bible doctrine. Angels “read” the Bible—they learn God’s manifold wisdom—by watching us Christians apply its doctrine to our lives. Paul was reminding the unruly Christian women in Corinth that their behavior of usurping male authority was disrupting God’s order in creation. These defiant women were confusing the angels who were observing their disobedience. We must be careful what we do because angels are watching us right now!

Notice the concluding verses of this section of 1 Corinthians 11: “[13] Judge in yourselves: is it comely that a woman pray unto God uncovered? [14] Doth not even nature itself teach you, that, if a man have long hair, it is a shame unto him? [15] But if a woman have long hair, it is a glory to her: for her hair is given her for a covering. [16] But if any man seem to be contentious, we have no such custom, neither the churches of God.”

Paul left the Corinthians to determine for themselves what was the mature action to take about head coverings, what was the proper way to look at the matter. (By the way, it is in light of 1 Corinthians 7:1 that I conclude the issue about head coverings was one of the many questions that the Corinthians sent to Paul in the form of a list, and the Apostle used the epistle of 1 Corinthians to reply to their questions.) Nature teaches us that men should have short hair and women should have long hair. A woman’s long hair is her covering—even in nature, women have a covering (long hair), and Paul was arguing how nature demonstrates there should be male headship and female submission (again, not male superiority, but male leadership for the sake of doctrinal integrity, lest Satan use female leadership to his advantage, as he did when he deceived Eve; 1 Timothy 2:11-15).

Verse 16 of 1 Corinthians 11 is particularly interesting: “But if any man seem to be contentious, we have no such custom, neither the churches of God.” This epistle of 1 Corinthians was not just sent to Corinth. Here we are reading it today, and we are not in Corinth. Like all the other books of the Bible, the epistle of 1 Corinthians circulated amongst all the Christians scattered throughout the Roman Empire. The Holy Spirit anticipated that some would go to extreme, some legalistic hobbyhorse, demanding all Christian women wear head coverings in every local church. Nowhere else in Paul’s epistles do we find references to this matter of head coverings: again, it was a local custom in Corinth (and thus confined to the Corinthians’ epistle). Overall, members of the Body of Christ were scattered around the then-known world, and the custom of head coverings was not a global issue. “We have no such custom, neither the churches of God.”

CONCLUSION

Women wearing head coverings was a local, cultural issue applicable to the Corinthians’ situation and time, so following their cultural practices would not be for us. There is, however, a doctrinal issue associated with this matter that reaches beyond cultural boundaries, and it is this doctrine of headship that we need to stress and apply.

In the culture at Corinth, a Christian woman’s veil (head covering) in the assembly identified her as submissive and humble (not weak, but meek). She did not appear to be arrogant or boisterous; she did not appear to be attempting to dominate the assembly and usurp male leadership. However, some Christian women were behaving improperly in the Corinthian assembly in this regard. They were abusing spiritual gifts, especially the gift of speaking in tongues, and Paul had to instruct these women to be quiet because men were to lead the church assembly (1 Corinthians 14:34; cf. 1 Timothy 2:11-15). In chapter 11, some female Christians in Corinth were not wearing head coverings, but the underlying problem went beyond outward appearance. It was the same as in 1 Corinthians 14:34—a heart/attitude of rejecting and usurping male headship in the local church. These women were not having power over their heads (1 Corinthians 11:10). Their action of not wearing head coverings was demonstrating that they were trying to usurp the authority of male leadership in the local church of Corinth.

Assorted groups and local churches today demand that their female members or visitors wear hats, shawls, or scarves on their heads in the assembly, as if doing so is a sign of spirituality. They are emphasizing the external appearance and overlooking the more important doctrinal implication of headship. In my American culture, head coverings are unnecessary in church settings. I do not demand that any female Christian wear a hat, scarf, shawl, beanie, et cetera in a local assembly here because that is not a custom in our culture. Furthermore, just as 1 Corinthians 11:16 says, the head coverings matter was not written in Scripture to lay down a law demanding all Christian women everywhere throughout the centuries must wear head coverings. It was a cultural issue isolated in Corinth (again, it was mentioned nowhere else in Paul’s epistles or ministry).

What we need to be sure to do is recognize and apply the fundamental doctrine being communicated in the issue: male headship in the local church and female submission in the local church (1 Corinthians 14:34; cf. 1 Timothy 2:11-15) and the home (Ephesians 5:21–6:4; Colossians 3:18-21). Please do not misunderstand. All Christians, men and women, are equally blessed in Jesus Christ (Galatians 3:28); we just have different God-given roles (the head coverings in Corinth distinguished the roles of men and women). As a general rule of thumb, whatever appearance and behaviors are attributed solely to men in a particular culture, the Christian women in that culture should avoid identifying with those appearance and behaviors. Beloved, may our Christian sisters never appear to be usurping male authority in the local church or in the home, and may they not usurp male authority in the local church or in the home.

Also see:
» What roles should women occupy in the ministry? (LINK TEMPORARILY UNAVAILABLE)
» Must I pray or speak in “tongues?”
» Which local church should I attend? (LINK TEMPORARILY UNAVAILABLE)

Can you please explain Paul’s “Acts” ministry?

CAN YOU PLEASE EXPLAIN PAULS MINISTRY DURING THE BOOK OF ACTS?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Certainly!

During the book of Acts, why did the Apostle Paul heal the sick, raise the dead, cast out devils, water baptize, offer sacrifices in Jerusalem’s Temple, physically circumcise Timothy, and place his hands on people to impart the Holy Ghost to them? Did these practices and miraculous demonstrations not belong in Israel’s program? Then why was Paul involved with them? Was Paul preaching in Israel’s program? As always, when we have Bible questions, we appeal to the Bible to get Bible answers. Not “For what saith the grace preacher” or “For what saith the grace seminary,” but “For what saith the Scriptures?”

In the Bible, from Genesis chapter 12 and Abram/Abraham until we come to the ministry of the Apostle Paul (Saul of Tarsus was saved in Acts chapter 9), JEHOVAH God is dealing almost exclusively with the nation Israel. Hence, John the Baptist’s ministry was limited to Israel (Luke 1:16-17,80; Acts 13:24), Jesus Christ’s earthly ministry (recorded in the books of Matthew through John) was restricted to Israel (Matthew 10:5-7; Matthew 15:24; Luke 19:9; John 1:11; John 4:22; Romans 15:8), and Peter and the 11 other apostles’ ministries were limited to Israel during early Acts (Acts 2:36; Acts 3:13,25; Acts 4:8; Acts 5:30-31; Acts 7:2). For those four years, Israel refused to listen to and believe the preaching of Jesus, Peter, the 11, and Stephen. The Jews refused to trust Jesus as their Messiah-King, so in Acts chapter 7 (when Israel’s leaders stoned Stephen), Israel’s program fell away (albeit temporarily). That is when the risen, ascended, and glorified Lord Jesus Christ began a new program by raising up Saul of Tarsus, saving him, making him Paul, a new apostle, and giving him a new message, the Gospel of the Grace of God (Acts chapter 9 and onward).

The latter part of the book of Acts (chapters 9-28) can be awfully confusing and downright impossible to understand unless we keep Romans 11:11-14 in mind. The first step in understanding Paul’s ministry during the Acts period is to read and believe Romans 11:11-14: “[11] I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy. [12] Now if the fall of them be the riches of the world, and the diminishing of them the riches of the Gentiles; how much more their fulness? [13] For I speak to you Gentiles, inasmuch as I am the apostle of the Gentiles, I magnify mine office: [14] If by any means I may provoke to emulation them which are my flesh, and might save some of them.”

According to the Old Testament prophetic program, the nation Israel should have risen to her kingdom glory. She should have accepted and trusted her Messiah-King Jesus, and in the literal, physical, visible kingdom He would then establish on the earth, Israel would be a kingdom of priests who would evangelize the Gentiles (see Exodus 19:5-6; Isaiah 59:21–60:3; Isaiah 61:6; Zechariah 8:20-23; Matthew 28:19; Mark 16:15; et cetera). When national Israel refused Jesus but rather crucified Him, and then refused to repent (change their mind about who He was) in early Acts, God caused her program to fall away temporarily. That is what Paul is saying in Romans 11:11-12. Israel stumbled at Calvary’s cross when she crucified her Messiah, but she did not fall (Romans 9:32-33). Israel later stumbled in early Acts by rejecting God the Holy Spirit who was speaking through Stephen (Acts 7:51,55), and Israel finally fell here. Today, national Israel is “fallen” (Romans 11:11-12); now, God sees no difference between Jew and Gentile (Romans 3:22; Galatians 3:28; Galatians 6:15; Ephesians 2:13-18; Colossians 3:11), but rather sees sinners (lost, those in Adam) and saints (saved, those in the Body of Christ). Throughout the book of Acts, from Acts chapter 7 to the end of the book of Acts (chapter 28), Israel and her program are “diminishing” (Romans 11:12)—the internal scriptural evidence suggests that Paul wrote the book of Romans during the book of Acts. One day, after God is finished dealing with the Church the Body of Christ, it will be raptured, and then He will resume Israel’s program (see Romans 11:25-32, 1 Thessalonians 4:13–5:9, and 2 Thessalonians 2:1-17). After our dispensation ends, Israel will be preeminent again in God’s dealings with mankind.

Romans 11:13 quoted above says that Paul is “the apostle of the Gentiles.” Paul has a ministry that is not limited to Israel. Paul is God’s spokesman to Gentiles (which would include lost Jews, since Israel fell before God years earlier in Acts chapter 7). But, in order to validate Paul’s ministry, in order to show Israel that her program was diminishing, God temporary granted Paul the power to perform miraculous demonstrations and exhibit other “Jewish-related behavior” (Acts chapters 9 through 28). Regarding the supernatural gift of speaking in tongues (intelligent human languages never formally learned), the Apostle Paul wrote: “[21] In the law it is written [Isaiah 28:11-12], With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord. [22] Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe” (1 Corinthians 14:21-22). By temporarily granting the supernatural gift of tongues to Gentiles, JEHOVAH, Israel’s God, was communicating to unbelieving Israel that He had now started a new program with Paul’s ministry.

Throughout Acts, we read how the Apostle Paul healed the sick (Acts 14:8-18; Acts 19:11-12; Acts 28:8-10), he physically circumcised Timothy (Acts 16:1-3), he water baptized new converts (Acts 16:14-15; Acts 16:30-33; Acts 18:7-8), he cast out a devil (Acts 16:16-18), he laid hands on people for them to receive the Holy Ghost (Acts 19:1-7), he raised the dead (Acts 20:7-12), he offered sacrifices in the Temple in Jerusalem (Acts 21:18-30), he spoke in tongues (1 Corinthians 14:18), and he survived a snake bite (Acts 28:1-6). The miraculous demonstrations and other behaviors associated with Jesus and His 12 apostles in Matthew through John and early Acts, Paul did them during the Acts period. Paul’s “strange” behavior in Acts was God’s way of communicating to unbelieving Israel that her God was now amongst the Gentiles through Paul’s ministry. Acts chapters 9 through Acts 28 is a transitional section of the Bible—it is the record of God being just/fair in setting Israel aside for a time and going to the Gentiles through Paul’s ministry (you can study the book of Acts to see how unbelieving Israel continually harassed and hindered God’s ministry through Paul).

Let us re-read Romans 11:14: “If by any means I may provoke to emulation them which are my flesh, and might save some of them.” Paul would “provoke to emulation them which are my flesh”—that is, the way Paul would encourage his lost Jewish brethren to behave like Gentiles and trust Jesus Christ—was by magnifying his Gentile apostleship (verse 13), and that Gentile apostleship involved Gentile believers experiencing Israel’s signs, miracles, and wonders. Although unbelieving Israel hated Paul (actually, they hated the Jesus Christ whom Paul served), and unbelieving Jews desperately tried to hinder Paul’s ministry throughout Acts, they were fully aware that the God of their fathers was working in and through him. Their miracles were now evident amongst the Gentiles; their God had signified to them that He was now working apart from them. They knew Paul’s ministry and message were valid, albeit they rejected it in unbelief as they had rejected Peter and the 11’s ministries.

Before we leave this section, notice what the Church at Jerusalem, Peter and the other Messianic Jews, witnessed: “[12] Then all the multitude kept silence, and gave audience to Barnabas and Paul, declaring what miracles and wonders God had wrought among the Gentiles by them. [13] And after they had held their peace, James answered, saying, Men and brethren, hearken unto me: [14] Simeon hath declared how God at the first did visit the Gentiles, to take out of them a people for his name” (Acts 15:12-14). Even believing Israel had to learn that God was now working through Paul.

 

CONCLUSION

The Dispensation of Grace began with the salvation of the Apostle Paul. Nevertheless, to validate Paul’s ministry for the lost Jews’ sakes, God temporarily granted Paul the gift of miracle-working and had him perform other “Jewish” behaviors. The signs, miracles, and wonders of Israel’s program were carried over into Paul’s ministry because God was demonstrating to Israel that her program was falling away and Paul’s ministry was replacing Peter’s (Romans 11:11-13; 2 Corinthians 12:12). Paul did the same things Peter did: water baptism—Acts 2:38-41 cf. Acts 16:30-33, healing the sick—Acts 3:6-8 cf. Acts 14:8-10, raising the dead—Acts 9:36-42 cf. Acts 20:9-11, laying on hands to give the Holy Ghost—Acts 8:14-20 cf. Acts 19:1-7. Eventually, Paul quit water baptizing (1 Corinthians 1:14-17), Paul could no longer heal himself and other Christians who were sick (Galatians 4:11-13; 1 Timothy 5:23; 2 Timothy 4:20), and so on.

Paul’s odd Acts ministry was God demonstrating to Israel that He was working through Paul, for Paul did the same things Israel’s apostles did. The strange and often controversial and confusing passages in Acts where Paul does things that belong in Israel’s program, is actually the Lord Jesus Christ validating Paul’s apostleship for unbelieving Israel’s benefit; those strange, Pauline Acts passages have nothing to do with us because they occurred during the transitional period of Acts, while God was moving from Israel to the Gentiles. Paul, when teaching the Church the Body of Christ in his epistles of Romans through Philemon, never instructs us to be water baptized, never instructs us to lay hands on sick people in order to heal them, never instructs us to lay hands on people to give the Holy Ghost to them, never instructs us to raise the dead, never instructs us to be physically circumcised for salvation, never instructs us to cast out devils, never instructs us to offer animal sacrifices, et cetera. When Paul did those things, it was not a pattern for us to follow; it was simply something God wanted Paul to do in order to teach Israel doctrine (that his ministry was replacing Peter and the 11’s, and if any lost Jews wanted salvation, they would have to come to Paul’s ministry and message/gospel).

By the time we get to Paul’s latter (that is, post-Acts) epistles (his prison epistles of Ephesians, Philippians, Colossians, and Philemon; also 1 Timothy, 2 Timothy, and Titus), Paul has no more relation to water baptism, laying on lands to receive the Holy Spirit, physical circumcision, raising the dead, healing the sick, animal sacrifices, devil casting, et cetera. By Acts chapter 28, Israel’s program had fully diminished and she had fallen (she had fallen back in Acts chapter 7). The 30-year-long Acts transitional period was over, and the Dispensation of Grace remained. Nothing began at the close of the book of Acts, but something ended—Paul’s transitional ministry ended. Just a few years after that, the Holy Bible was completed, and the spiritual gifts were no longer necessary (1 Corinthians 13:8-13). How simple!

Also see:

» Did Paul ever preach the Gospel of the Kingdom?
» What about spiritual gifts in the Dispensation of Grace? (LINK TEMPORARILY UNAVAILABLE)
» What is “the Dispensation of Grace?”

Is “Easter” a mistranslation in the King James Bible in Acts 12:4?

DOES OUR KING JAMES BIBLE HAVE A MISTRANSLATION IN ACTS 12:4?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Critics of our perfect King James Bible attack it using a barrage of complaints (most of these are exaggerations, distortions of facts, and just plain immature, careless, and downright stupid comments). Our 1611 translators are heavily criticized for using the word “Easter” in Acts 12:4—a supposed mistranslation of a word critics say “should be” rendered “Passover” like the modern versions handle it (sounds like a sales pitch!). Were the King James translators in error by using the word “Easter” in God’s Word? Or, did they have a special reason for using it rather than “Passover?” Let us search the Scriptures because they are our final authority—we do not appeal to “scholarship” or church tradition.

The word pascha appears 29 times in the Greek New Testament manuscripts. In 28 of those cases, the King James translators rendered it “Passover” (Matthew 26:2,17,18,19; Mark 14:1,12,14,16; Luke 2:41; Luke 22:1,7,8,11,13,15; John 2:13,23; John 6:4; John 11:55; John 12:1; John 13:1; John 18:28,39; John 19:14; 1 Corinthians 5:7; Hebrews 11:28). Our 1611 translators obviously knew the meaning of pascha—they demonstrated that they were competent in translating it over two-dozen times! Yet, they rendered pascha “Easter” in Acts 12:4, the one and only time they did so. Why not use “Passover” like every other instance? The key is found in verse 3.

Let us begin reading Acts chapter 12 as it is found in the King James Bible: “[1] Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church. [2] And he killed James the brother of John with the sword. [3] And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) [4] And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.”

Herod Agrippa I, who reigned A.D. 37-44, troubled certain members of the Messianic Church (Matthew 10:18). In fact, he has the Apostle John’s brother James the apostle slain by the sword. This is noteworthy since Jesus Christ had previously surnamed brothers James and John “Boanerges,” or “The sons of thunder” (Mark 3:17). In Scripture, thunder is often associated with God’s voice (2 Samuel 22:14; Job 37:4-5; Job 40:8; Psalm 18:13; Psalm 29:3; John 12:29; Revelation 14:2). In other words, by killing James, Herod is attempting to silence God who was speaking through James! The Jews are pleased that one of God’s apostles, who constantly preached Jesus Christ to unbelieving Israel, is now dead. Herod sees Israel’s joyful reaction to James’ death; seeking popularity with Israel, Herod pursues Peter’s arrest (probably intending to kill him, too).

The parenthetical note, then were the days of unleavened bread” of Acts 12:3 indicates the time of year. According to the Law of Moses, the Feast of Unleavened Bread immediately followed the Passover feast. Passover was Abib 14th / roughly mid-April (Exodus 12:6; Leviticus 23:5) and the Feast of Unleavened Bread lasted from Abib 15th until the 21st (Exodus 12:15-20; Leviticus 23:6-8). The Bible says after the week of Unleavened Bread, Herod arrested and imprisoned Peter. Herod had 16 soldiers (quaternion = four soldiers) guard Peter until Easter had passed, and then he would bring Peter before the people (Israel).

Notice how Acts 12:3 explains that the days of Unleavened Bread, and thus Passover, have already come and gone. Acts 12:4 could not be referring to Passover, unless a full year had passed since verse 3’s Passover (which is highly unlikely). Easter, not Passover, would follow the days of Unleavened Bread. Moreover, Herod is pagan (non-Christian), so he would be celebrating Easter rather than Passover anyway. The King James translators are thereby justified—the modern Bible version translators are those in error (in “correcting” the Bible, they introduced a blatant mistake!).

By the way, in order to cover up the mistake in modern “bible” versions, some have argued that the Feast of Unleavened Bread was also called Passover, so Passover rather than Easter is implied in Acts 12:4. While Luke 22:1 does say that the Feast of Unleavened Bread was called Passover,” that was obviously a colloquial phrase that Israel used—Luke did not write, “it was Passover.” God in His Word never collectively referred to Passover and the week of Unleavened Bread as “Passover.” “Passover” is one night. God did not “pass over” Israel seven nights in a row; He passed one night alone (this night;” Exodus 12:12). Passover, in the strict Bible sense, applied only to one day; not the entire week that followed it. The pro-modern-version “the Days of Unleavened Bread was Passover” argument simply does not work.

“Easter” is the correct translation in Acts 12:4: contrary to what you might expect from our “hard-to-read, archaic, unscholarly” King James Bible, it has the right translation in Acts 12:4! Additionally, the great Bible scholar and translator, William Tyndale (c. 1494–1536), the Christian brother God used most to get the English Bible into our hands, judged that “ester”—not “Passover”—belonged in Acts 12:4 for the verse to make sense. Again, the modern “bibles” have a mistake in Acts 12:4 (including the NKJV and the New American Catholic Bible); the King James Bible is vindicated.

NOTE: One popular study Bible has an interesting footnote at Acts 12:4: “Though Easter does communicate correctly the time of year, the Greek word must be translated Passover.” While the King James Bible communicates the correct time of year by using “Easter,” the editors of this study Bible reassure us that it is still wrong and that pascha must be translated “Passover.” Why must it be translated Passover? It is imperative that the King James Bible be wrong (either way)! If that is not doubletalk, I do not know what is! (I suppose if the King James translators had “Passover” in Acts 12:4, critics would complain that it taught the wrong time of year!)

Also see:
» Can we trust the King James Bible? (LINK TEMPORARILY UNAVAILABLE)
» Should Christians observe Passover?
» Should Christians celebrate Easter?

“Judge not, that ye be not judged?”

SHOULD WE SPEAK OUT AGAINST THE WORLD’S SINS? THEN, WHAT DID JESUS MEAN, “JUDGE NOT, THAT YE BE NOT JUDGED?”

by Shawn Brasseaux

In this day and age of “political correctness,” the Bible-believing Christian is being intimidated to keep silent about sin. As long as people are happy doing whatever they are doing, they should be left alone, and we are expected to stay quiet, no matter how vile or disrespectful the action is. Sadly, Matthew 7:1 is often used against the Bible believer who exposes sin for what it is. “Judge not, that ye be not judged.” What did Jesus mean here? Was He teaching that we should be totally silent about the world’s sins? That we should not stand up for what is right and godly? Before someone “judges” the Bible believer in this regard, the critic needs to note the context of the verse to which he or she clings.

It is usually haughtily said to the Bible-believing Christian who exposes sin for what it is, “This is the way God made me, so stop judging me. Jesus said not to judge.” Then, Matthew 7:1 is appealed to: “Judge not, that ye be not judged.” In fact, in the recent past, the world’s most prominent religious leader commented about homosexual clergy within his church. Pope Francis stated, “If someone is gay and he searches for the Lord and has good will, who am I to judge? We shouldn’t marginalize [prevent from having attention or power] people for this. They must be integrated into society.” Such apathetic, pathetic words from someone who claims to be “the vicar of Jesus Christ” (which Jesus Christ?; 2 Corinthians 11:3,4). If anything, even the pope seemed to be using Matthew 7:1 to conclude that we should not defend godly behavior and that we should not speak out when moral decay waxes worse and worse.

Naturally, when God’s Holy Word pricks the conscience, the desperate sinner will then “take cover” behind any available “fig leaf” (his or her parents did it back in Genesis 3:7-11). Perhaps nothing is more absurd than when the unholy sinner uses God’s Holy Word to justify his or her sin—completely disregarding the Bible’s purpose (which is to expose sin so man can see his need for the Saviour Jesus Christ!). Rather than being held accountable to God Almighty for wresting (twisting) His Word to make it say something so as to bolster our sin, why not leave it alone and believe it, setting aside our pride and admitting our fault, our unrighteousness, our sin, like the Bible so clearly proves? Rather than idly speculating what type of “judging” to which Jesus referred in Matthew 7:1, it would spare us much heartache and shame if we would—who would have guessed it?—simply read the context!

We will not understand what Jesus Christ meant in Matthew 7:1 unless we read the context: “[1] Judge not, that ye be not judged. [Because/Explanation/Reason] [2] For with what judgment ye judge, ye shall be judged: and with what measure ye mete, it shall be measured to you again. [3] And why beholdest thou the mote that is in thy brother’s eye, but considerest not the beam that is in thine own eye? [4] Or how wilt thou say to thy brother, Let me pull out the mote out of thine eye; and, behold, a beam is in thine own eye? [5] Thou hypocrite, first cast out the beam out of thine own eye; and then shalt thou see clearly to cast out the mote out of thy brother’s eye” (Matthew 7:1-5).

By simply reading the verse with its context, the clarity is astonishing! When any dear soul attempts to argue, “Judge not, that ye be not judged,” politely remind them that there are four succeeding verses to quote too. If you happen to have your King James Bible in hand, let him or her read those verses. To what type of “judging” is Jesus referring? According to Jesus, He is talking about a hypocrite (verse 5). Certainly, Jesus knew what He meant, did He not?

Before we proceed any further, let us define “judge.” To “judge” means “to form an opinion or conclusion about.” God’s Word, the Holy Bible, enables us Christians to form sound conclusions about various life issues, doctrines, beliefs, practices, and so on. Prove all things; hold fast that which is good” (1 Thessalonians 5:21). Surely, God intended us to “judge,” for His Holy Spirit inspired the words “prove [test, discern, examine] all things” and “hold fast [seize, take, grip] that which is good.” Unless we “judge,” how will we determine what is “good?”

What Jesus Christ was discussing in Matthew 7:1 is that we should not judge hypocritically. Our Lord is referring to hypocritical judging. Romans 2:21-22 provides an example: “[20] Thou [Jew, verse 17] therefore which teachest another, teachest thou not thyself? thou that preachest a man should not steal, dost thou steal? [22] Thou that sayest a man should not commit adultery, dost thou commit adultery? thou that abhorest idols, dost thou commit sacrilege?” The Jews should have taught the Gentiles the Word of JEHOVAH God. Alas, the Jews were equally guilty of breaking God’s laws as the Gentiles—the Jews acted like the Gentiles who did not even know JEHOVAH!

What Jesus Christ meant in Matthew 7:1 is that in His kingdom on earth, no hypocritical judging will be tolerated. Whatever standard by which a Jew condemns others’ actions, his own activities will be evaluated by that same standard. For instance, he will come under God’s condemnation if he ridicules a thief, when he himself has been dishonest (a fact he ignores). He emphasizes the sin of one person (the “mote,” or speck), but he has many sins (the “beam,” or log)—in fact, he is guilty of the same sins!

This, however, does not mean we Christians are to remain apathetic—silent—about sin. Clearly, Jesus, in Matthew 7:1, was not teaching we should be silent about exposing sin (He merely forbade hypocritical judging; verses 2-5). The Holy Spirit through the Apostle Paul preached against sin in order to show lost people they needed to be saved from those sins through the finished crosswork of Jesus Christ (Acts 13:26-41; Acts 14:11-18; Acts 17:16-31; Acts 24:25; et cetera). Notice the Holy Spirit’s references to specific sins which gender His righteous wrath—murder, envy, pride, homosexuality, drunkenness, fornication, idolatry, witchcraft, disobedience to parents, theft, hatred, gossiping, cruelty, lying, and so on (Romans 1:21-32; 1 Corinthians 6:9,10; Galatians 5:19-21; 1 Timothy 1:9,10; 1 Peter 4:1-5). Notice Paul’s divinely-inspired instructions about having no relations with Christians who are fornicators, covetous, extortionists, idolaters, railers, and drunkards (1 Corinthians 5:9-13).

Christ declared, “He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day (John 12:48). God in His Word has already declared what is and what is not sin. Technically, we are not judging the world; God’s Word does that when we believe it and preach it! Remember, “But he that is spiritual judgeth all things, yet he himself is judged of no man. For who hath known the mind of the Lord, that he may instruct him? But we have the mind of Christ” (1 Corinthians 2:15,16).

Dearly beloved in Christ, let us be bold to speak out against sin by sharing God’s Word with others, but let us do it in meekness and love (2 Timothy 2:24-26). Our goal is not to be unkind to lost people, but to tell them the answer to their sin problem is only found through the shed blood, death, burial, and resurrection of the Lord Jesus Christ! By preaching this Gospel of Grace, we remind ourselves we were once where they are.

Also see:
» Why is there sin in the world? (LINK TEMPORARILY UNAVAILABLE)
» Is not hell only reserved for “bad” people? (LINK TEMPORARILY UNAVAILABLE)
» Do all religions worship the same God? (LINK TEMPORARILY UNAVAILABLE)

Does not Acts 15:11 disprove dispensational Bible study?

DOES ACTS 15:11 REFUTE DISPENSATIONAL BIBLE STUDY? IF NOT, WHAT IS THIS VERSE TEACHING?

by Shawn Brasseaux

What does Acts 15:11 mean? Does this verse disprove dispensational Bible study, as some claim? Does it teach there is only one gospel in the Bible, as some claim? Does it mean that every saved person in history is part of the Church the Body of Christ, as some claim? Let us search the Scriptures for the answers.

In Acts 15, some “Judaizers” (Mosaic Law teachers) from Jerusalem are going around and subverting the souls of Paul and Barnabas’ Gentile converts: “And certain men which came down from Judaea taught the brethren, and said, Except ye be circumcised after the manner of Moses, ye cannot be saved” (verse 1). Paul and Barnabas have a major argument and debate with these Judaizers, and these legalists instruct Paul and Barnabas to go back to Jerusalem with some of them, and ask Israel’s apostles and elders about the matter (verse 2).

Once Paul and Barnabas arrive in Jerusalem, they declare to the Jerusalem assembly of believers (particularly Israel’s apostles and elders), all the wonderful things God has done amongst the Gentiles through their ministry (verse 4). However, some Pharisees who believe, object by saying that it was needful for Paul and Barnabas to physically circumcise those Gentiles and command them to keep the Mosaic Law (verse 5). Verse 6 says that Israel’s apostles and elders confer amongst themselves about the issue.

When a great debate is started, the Apostle Peter arises and explains to them Cornelius’ salvation (which he personally witnessed some 10 years previous). Let us read Peter’s words in Acts 15:7-11: “[7] And when there had been much disputing, Peter rose up, and said unto them, Men and brethren, ye know how that a good while ago God made choice among us, that the Gentiles by my mouth should hear the word of the gospel, and believe. [8] And God, which knoweth the hearts, bare them witness, giving them the Holy Ghost, even as he did unto us; [9] And put no difference between us and them, purifying their hearts by faith. [10] Now therefore why tempt ye God, to put a yoke upon the neck of the disciples, which neither our fathers nor we were able to bear? [11] But we believe that through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved, even as they.”

Notice how Peter is coming to Paul and Barnabas’ defense. Recall that when Gentile Cornelius was saved in Acts 10 under Peter’s ministry, it was under extraordinary circumstances. Up to that point, Peter saw Jews (and later some Samaritans) get water baptized and then receive the Holy Ghost (Acts 2:38; Acts 8:14-17). With Cornelius, Peter saw the Holy Ghost fall on those Gentiles before they were water baptized, and the Bible says the Jews with Peter were amazed at the reversal. Read what happened with Cornelius in Acts 10: “[44] While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word. [45] And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost. [46] For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter, [47] Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we? [48] And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord. Then prayed they him to tarry certain days.”

Notice Peter’s words in verse 47: “which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we?” Peter knew that these believing Gentiles at Cornelius’ home were just as filled with the Holy Spirit as he and they (the believing Jews) were. This is all in Peter’s mind when he discusses it with the apostles and elders in Acts 15, about a decade later. Hence, Peter says in Acts 15:8: “And God, which knoweth the hearts, bare them witness, giving them the Holy Ghost, even as he did unto us.”

When Peter hears about Paul and Barnabas and how they did not teach physical circumcision and Law-keeping amongst the Gentiles, Peter may not have understood it, but he was not surprised. Peter remembered how God had departed from the “norm” with Cornelius, and Peter (unlike those in Acts 15:5) saw how God departing from the “norm” with Paul and Barnabas’ converts was not necessarily a bad thing and was not impossible. This is how Acts 15:11 should be viewed. Peter assumed that Paul’s Gentiles converts had received the Holy Spirit without legalism, just as Cornelius had received the Holy Spirit without water baptism. Peter’s words are thus indicating that it was not “needful” to physically circumcise Paul’s Gentile converts and tell them to keep the Mosaic Law (which is what the believing Pharisees were arguing for in Acts 15:5).

Peter urges Israel’s other apostles and elders not to “tempt” God, to challenge God as to whether or not He is operating properly through Paul and Barnabas by not promoting legalism amongst the Gentiles, since he (Peter) did not “tempt” God and question what He was doing when he saw God do some strange things with Cornelius and those other Gentiles. Read in Acts 15 where Peter continued recounting the story of Cornelius’ salvation, “[9] And [God] put no difference between us and them [the Gentiles], purifying their hearts by faith. [10] Now therefore why tempt ye God, to put a yoke upon the neck of the disciples, which neither our fathers nor we were able to bear? [11] But we believe that through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved, even as they.” Peter does not fully understand what is going on with Paul and toward the end of his life Peter confessed he never fully did comprehend Paul’s doctrine (2 Peter 3:15-16), but he does recognize God is doing something “unusual” with Paul and Barnabas (just like he saw those unique events with Cornelius).

The word “grace” in Acts 15:11 is probably the greatest cause of stumbling for many, and it should not. “But we believe that through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved, even as they.” While this sounds like Paul’s Gospel, the Gospel of the Grace of God, it is not. Remember, God’s grace is not exclusive to Paul’s ministry: God’s grace is found throughout the Bible (look at Genesis 6:8, for example), but the way in which God manifested His grace is different in various dispensations. For instance, the very nature of the New Covenant that will be given to Israel is “grace and truth,” which will replace the Old Covenant of Law with its wrath and punishment (John 1:17). God will give Israel grace (what she does not deserve) through the New Covenant, despite the fact that she broke the Old Covenant of Law.

In Israel’s program, God deals with a Jew in two ways: on an individual basis and on a national basis. Any believing Jew received forgiveness of sins when he or she confessed the breaking of the Old Covenant, got water baptized, and trusted Jesus as Messiah (Acts 2:38; 1 John 1:9; 1 John 2:12)—this was then credited to them, to be permanently forgiven when the rest of Israel was converted. However, the Old Covenant was given to the entire nation Israel, not just to one Jew. The entire nation Israel broke the Old Covenant, so God deals with them on a national level too. Israel’s national sins must also be dealt with, and they will be blotted out at the Second Coming of Jesus Christ (Acts 3:19; Romans 11:26-27; cf. Jeremiah 31:31-34; Hebrews 8:8-13; Hebrews 10:15-17). This is why Peter speaks of their [Israel’s] salvation as future: “we shall be saved” (Acts 15:11). Peter acknowledges that God will save Paul’s Gentile converts through grace, too. In other words, Peter is saying that Paul’s Gentile converts are saved, despite the fact that they do not have physical circumcision and Law-keeping.

What Peter does not understand is that this dispensational change with Paul’s ministry involves God’s grace now being manifested through Jesus Christ’s finished crosswork, and that God is offering His grace to every person (lost Jew or lost Gentile) through the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus Christ as sufficient payment for their sins, and without Law-keeping (Peter emphasized Law-keeping to Cornelius in Acts 10:35, and notice Peter did not link Jesus Christ’s finished crosswork to Cornelius’ salvation like Paul would do with his converts and us)—we learn this “Gospel of the Grace of God” only from Paul’s ministry (Acts 20:24; Romans 3:24; Romans 4:4,16; Romans 5:15,17,20,21; 1 Corinthians 1:4; 1 Corinthians 15:10; 2 Corinthians 8:9; Galatians 1:6,15; Gal. 2:21; Ephesians 1:7; Ephesians 2:5,7-8; Ephesians 3:2,7; Colossians 1:6; 1 Timothy 1:14; 2 Timothy 1:9; Titus 2:11; Titus 3:7).

So, Acts 15:11 does not disprove dispensational Bible study. It simply shows that God saves sinners in every dispensation and that that salvation is not what they deserve (remember, grace is what we do not deserve). Peter did not understand it all, but he did recognize that Paul’s Gentile converts were acceptable to God without physical circumcision and Law keeping, just as he witnessed how Cornelius received the Holy Ghost without water baptism. In Acts 15:11, Peter used this reality to come to Paul and Barnabas’ defense, and evidently, this caused James to understand some of the matter (Acts 15:14ff.), and, consequently, this saved Paul’s ministry from being hindered and saved his converts from additional trouble with Israel’s believing remnant (Acts 15:19-32).

Also see:
» Do not Hebrews 13:8 and Malachi 3:6 disprove dispensational Bible study? (LINK TEMPORARILY UNAVAILABLE)
» Was Cornelius a member of the Church the Body of Christ? (LINK TEMPORARILY UNAVAILABLE)
» If dispensational Bible study is true, how come few people believe it? (LINK TEMPORARILY UNAVAILABLE)

Is “Behold, I stand at the door, and knock” really a Gospel invitation?

WHAT IS THE REAL MEANING OF REVELATION 3:20?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Revelation 3:20 is often quoted during “Gospel invitations.” Lost people are told that Jesus is knocking on their heart’s door, and they are urged to open the door and let Him come into their hearts and save them. Is that really what Revelation 3:20 is teaching? We will let the Bible be our final authority in that regard, and not promote denominational doctrine as though it were true.

“Behold, I stand at the door, and knock: if any man hear my voice, and open the door, I will come in to him, and will sup with him, and he with me” (Revelation 3:20). As always, we look at the context so that we can understand a verse, lest we make the verse say something that it does not say. We will read from Revelation 3:

“[14] And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God; [15] I know thy works, that thou art neither cold nor hot: I would thou wert cold or hot. [16] So then because thou art lukewarm, and neither cold nor hot, I will spue thee out of my mouth. [17] Because thou sayest, I am rich, and increased with goods, and have need of nothing; and knowest not that thou art wretched, and miserable, and poor, and blind, and naked: [18] I counsel thee to buy of me gold tried in the fire, that thou mayest be rich; and white raiment, that thou mayest be clothed, and that the shame of thy nakedness do not appear; and anoint thine eyes with eyesalve, that thou mayest see. [19] As many as I love, I rebuke and chasten: be zealous therefore, and repent. [20] Behold, I stand at the door, and knock: if any man hear my voice, and open the door, I will come in to him, and will sup with him, and he with me. [21] To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne. [22] He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches.”

Revelation 3:20 has a context, and that verse is written to the angel of the church of the Laodiceans, Jewish believers who will endure the future seven-year Tribulation (verse 14). These Laodiceans are “lukewarm,” “neither cold nor hot” (verse 15,16): they are materialistic and their works displease God (verses 17,18). They are “straddling the fence,” so to speak; therefore, the Lord through the Apostle John admonishes these them, “be zealous therefore, and repent [change your thinking!]” (verse 19).

“Behold, I stand at the door, and knock” is best understood when compared to James 5:8,9 (also written to Jews during the Tribulation): “[8] Be ye also patient; stablish your hearts: for the coming of the Lord draweth nigh. [9] Grudge not one against another, brethren, lest ye be condemned: behold, the judge standeth before the door.” In the context of Revelation 3:20, Jesus Christ’s Second Coming is near, and God is warning these believing Jews to “get their act together” so they can be ready to accept their Messiah-King, and so their deeds and hearts (attitudes) are acceptable to Him (Matthew 23:42-51; Luke 19:12-27; Revelation 22:11-12; et cetera).

Return to the context of Revelation 3:20: “To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne” (verse 21). This refers to believing Jews entering their earthly kingdom (which Christ will establish at His Second Coming). How plain! Revelation 3:20 belongs to Israel, not us.

So, Revelation 3:20 has nothing to do with salvation from sins and hell. It has nothing to do with “Jesus knocking at the door of a lost person’s heart” or “asking Jesus into your heart.” Contrariwise, it actually entails judgment!

Dispensational Bible study helps us understand Revelation 3:20 is not even talking to or about us anyway. First, John is its author (Revelation 1:4). John is not writing to us in the Dispensation of Grace; he is an apostle of Israel, writing to Jews in their kingdom program (Galatians 2:9). We need to leave Revelation 3:20 where it is in the Bible, and not rip it out of its context so that it promotes our denominational doctrine.

 

Also see:
» Must I walk an aisle to show I am saved?
» Must I confess my sins?
» Must I audibly confess “Jesus is Lord” in order to be saved? (LINK TEMPORARILY UNAVAILABLE)

Why do Matthew 28:19 and Acts 2:38 contain dissimilar instructions?

WHY DO MATTHEW 28:19 AND ACTS 2:38 SAY DIFFERENT THINGS?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Water baptism, the most divisive issue within Christendom, is rightly called “religious TNT.” There is tremendous confusion about water baptism. Who should administer it (priest, pastor, deacon)? What is the proper mode (sprinkling, pouring, immersion)? What words should be said? Who should be water baptized (adults only, or adults and babies)? How many times forward and backward? Where should it occur? For salvation, for a testimony, or not at all?

Two particular verses regarding this topic are Matthew 28:19 and Acts 2:38.

Jesus Christ commanded His twelve apostles, Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: (Matthew 28:19).

Strangely, we read in Acts 2:38, “Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.”

Does the Bible contain a mistake here? How do we resolve Jesus Christ’s instructions in Matthew 28:19 with what the Holy Spirit spoke through the Apostle Peter in Acts 2:38? Do you see why people get confused when they read the Bible? The Bible seems to be contradicting itself, does it not? Which is it? Water baptize “in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost,” as Jesus Christ declared (Matthew 28:19)? Or, be baptized “in the name of Jesus Christ,” as the Holy Spirit through the Apostle Peter taught (Acts 2:38)? Even today, some denominations follow Matthew 28:19 while others obey Acts 2:38, fervently accusing each other of not having the valid baptism!

Resolving the apparent contradiction between Matthew 28:19 and Acts 2:38 is as simple as reading and believing the verses and their context. To whom does Matthew 28:19 refer? “All nations”Gentiles—just as the verse says. Whom does Acts 2:38 involve? “All the house of Israel(verse 36).

Matthew 28:19 refers to believing Gentiles in Christ’s millennial kingdom (verse 20) being cleansed from their pagan idolatry and embracing the triune Godhead, the only true God. Acts 2:38 is God’s plan of salvation for Israel: Peter is instructing Jews to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ, the Person they rejected and crucified on Calvary’s cross. Peter said, “Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ” (Acts 2:36), and then he urged to be baptized in Jesus’ name (verse 38).

Also see:
» Do I need to be water baptized?
» Why is water baptism necessary in Israel’s program?
» Why was Jesus water baptized?

Why did Jesus call men “gods?”

WHY DID JESUS CALL MEN “GODS” IN JOHN 10:34? CAN MEN REALLY BE “GODS?”

by Shawn Brasseaux

In John 10:34, the Lord Jesus Christ made a very strange statement: “Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?” Was Jesus Christ saying that mere mortal men can literally be gods or God? Let us search the Scriptures, especially the context, for the answer, and not speculate on the basis of church tradition.

In the context, Jesus stated, “My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father’s hand. I and my Father are one” (verses 29,30). Christ said His Father was “greater than all,” and then He equated Himself with His Father—“I and my Father are one.” Jesus claimed to be equal to God the Father, and this infuriated the Jews. “Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him” (verse 31).

“Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me? The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God(verses 32,33). Then comes Jesus’s mysterious answer in John 10:34: “Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken; say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?”

If we search the Old Testament Scriptures, we learn that Jesus quoted Psalm 82:6 (“Ye are gods”). But, how does this relate to the situation in John chapter 10? Why does the Bible call men “gods” here?

It is helpful to read Psalm 82 at this point: “[1] God standeth among the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the gods. [2] How long will ye judge unjustly, and accept the persons of the wicked? Selah [Rest/Pause]. [3] Defend the poor and fatherless: do justice to the afflicted and needy. [4] Deliver the poor and needy: rid them out of the land of the wicked. [5] They know not, neither will they understand; they walk on in darkness: all the foundations of the earth are out of course. [6] I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High. [7] But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes. Arise, O God, judge the earth: for thou shalt inherit all nations.”

Israel’s leaders, whom God ordained to lead the nation in His ways, are perverted and cruel. They were “gods” in the sense that God wanted to utilize their position of leadership to take care of His people, Israel. God ordained Israel’s leaders to educate the nation in light of His Word, to rule His people with godliness and honesty. Israel was a theocracy—God ruled her through kings, prophets, priests, judges, et cetera. Nevertheless, Psalm 82 says these leaders are ungodly and cruel. They are not fulfilling God’s will, they are not executing proper judgment in Israel, and they are not ruling Israel as God would rule her. They preferred to abuse their authority. They are not fulfilling God’s will; they are not executing righteous judgment in Israel. Thus, God will have to come and personally rule Israel and accomplish His will without those leaders: “Arise, O God, judge the earth: for thou shalt inherit all nations” (Psalm 82:8). This parallels the situation in John chapter 10. Israel’s leaders, and even the common Jews, are still wicked. As in Psalm 82, so in Christ’s day, Israel’s leaders and even the common Jews who claimed to be following JEHOVAH, were doing anything and everything but. They were wicked, despite their privileged position as God’s chosen earthly people.

Remember, man is not equal to God, for the creature is inferior to his Creator. There is one God (1 Corinthians 8:4-6), and all of creation is nothing in His sight (Isaiah 40:12-31). Thus, obviously, Psalm 82:6 and John 10:34 are utilizing the word “gods” idiomatically. Here, the literal sense—that men are actually gods—is nonsense. It must be a “play on words.”

In John chapter 10, Jesus Christ basically said that He can be rightly called “the Son of God,” and His working with God the Father verified His claim (He healed the blind man in chapter 9). These Jews, however, merely claim to be of God—they do not do His will like God’s children do (John 1:12). Jesus Christ asked, “[36] Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God? [37] If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not. [38] But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him” (John 10:36-38). The (convicted) Jews understood Him… they tried to physically grab Jesus, but He escaped (verse 39)!

In summary of John 10:34, our Lord Jesus Christ was forcing His audience to remember the contents of Psalm 82 by quoting one of its verses.

By quoting verse 6, Ye are gods,” He equated His audience in John chapter 10 with the evil and unbelieving rulers of Israel of centuries past. They were all antagonistic against God’s will (in Psalm 82, instead of ruling as God would, they rule Israel in wickedness; in John chapter 10, they reject God the Son and want to kill Him). Jesus’ audience knew they were wicked!

Psalm 82:7 said, “Ye are gods… but ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes.” Jesus reminded His audience that their punishment was coming!

Also, Psalm 82:8—“Arise, O God, judge the earth: for thou shalt inherit all nations”—was in their minds. They were not accomplishing God’s will, so God (Jesus Christ) would have to perform His will without them (John 10:36-38). Jesus’ audience knew their God had arrived!

By quoting Psalm 82, Jesus reaffirmed His deity and confirmed their unbelief! The Jews understood what Jesus said: they were so irritated and convicted that they unsuccessfully re-attempted to physically seize Him (John 10:39). Behold the wisdom of our Lord Jesus Christ!

Also see:
» What is “Abraham’s bosom?”
» “No man has seen God?”
» Why are the instructions in Matthew 28:19 and Acts 2:38 dissimilar?

Can Christians lose their salvation?

ONCE SAVED, ALWAYS SAVED? CAN I LOSE MY SALVATION? HOW CAN I HAVE THE ASSURANCE OF SALVATION?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Can Christians lose their salvation? Must we do good works to maintain (keep) our salvation? Is salvation instantaneous (once for all) or progressive (throughout your lifetime)? Let us look at the Bible verses people often use to refute and reject the doctrine of “once saved, always saved” (the eternal security of the believer). The confusion would disappear if people would “study… rightly dividing the word of truth” (2 Timothy 2:15).

Read Galatians 5:4: “Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace.” Does the expression “fallen from grace” mean that some of the Galatians lost their salvation? Of course not, because Paul calls these Galatians “brethren” nine times (Galatians 1:11, 3:15, 4:12, 4:28, 4:30, 5:11, 5:13, 6:1, 6:18)!

Galatia was being pummeled with false teaching and works-religion (Judaism). Some of these poor believers had been deceived to the point where they were now laboring under the Mosaic Law to receive salvation… salvation they had already received by grace through faith without works (Galatians 3:2,3). “Fallen from grace” simply means that some of the Galatians gave up on the grace system—being rewarded on the basis of Jesus Christ’s finished crosswork on Calvary—because they preferred legalism—being rewarded on the basis of their works/performance (cf. Romans 4:1-8; Romans 11:6; Ephesians 2:8,9; Galatians 2:16-21; Titus 3:5).

For those who are unfamiliar with dispensational Bible study (mid-Acts dispensationalism / Pauline dispensationalism), Hebrews 6:4-6 can be quite confusing. Let us look at that passage: “[4] For it is impossible for those who were once enlightened, and have tasted of the heavenly gift, and were made partakers of the Holy Ghost, [5] And have tasted the good word of God, and the powers of the world to come, [6] If they shall fall away, to renew them again unto repentance; seeing they crucify to themselves the Son of God afresh, and put him to an open shame.”

The goal of dispensational Bible study and right division is to determine the audience of the particular Bible passage. In this case, obviously, the writer is addressing Jews—after all, it is the epistle to the Hebrews. The people being addressed in the above passage are the nation Israel.

All of Israel saw Jesus Christ’s miracles. They saw the supernatural events on the day of Pentecost in Acts chapter 2. If the miracles, signs, and wonders of Christ’s earthly ministry and Acts chapter 2 were not enough proof to win the Jews to salvation, there was nothing else to convince them. Jesus told Israel, “Except ye see signs and wonders, ye will not believe” (John 4:48). These Jews saw the power of the Holy Spirit, but they rejected God in unbelief. Consider Hebrews 2:3,4: “[3] How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord, and was confirmed unto us by them that heard him; [4] God also bearing them witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?”

Again, the “we” is the nation Israel—it was the Jews, not us. We see the reference to Christ’s miracles and preaching the Gospel of the Kingdom during His earthly ministry (“the great salvation which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord;” Matthew 4:17). Obviously, the “gifts of the Holy Spirit” is a reference to Pentecost and Acts chapter 2, the power of the Holy Spirit being manifested (see Luke 24:49). Recall that we examined Hebrews 6:4-6, which mentioned “the powers of the world to come.” When Jesus Christ and His apostles performed miracles, they were demonstrating the power that was coming in the kingdom: when Christ will establish His kingdom on the earth, the curse would be lifted from creation and there would be no more sickness or unclean spirits (devils (Isaiah 35:1-10; Zechariah 13:1-2; et al.).

Acts chapter 2, Hebrews chapter 2, and Hebrews chapter 6 have nothing to do with anyone reading this. These passages describe Israel’s program, which is not the program that God is operating today. Period. At this point, we will look a related matter that many people have confused. Do you ever wonder if you are guilty of committing the “unpardonable sin” of Matthew 12:31-32, Mark 3:28-30, and Luke 12:10, the blasphemy against the Holy Ghost? Let me assure you that this has nothing do with us today; this special sin of blaspheming against the Holy Ghost relates to the nation Israel (see our study “Have I blasphemed against the Holy Ghost?”).

Can we be “more saved” one day, and “less saved” another day? Do good works somehow “enhance” our salvation? Philippians 3:12-15 has been wrested and twisted to promote this absurd teaching. First, here is the passage: “[12] Not as though I had already attained, either were already perfect: but I follow after, if that I may apprehend that for which also I am apprehended of Christ Jesus. [13] Brethren, I count not myself to have apprehended: but this one thing I do, forgetting those things which are behind, and reaching forth unto those things which are before, [14] I press toward the mark for the prize of the high calling of God in Christ Jesus. [15] Let us therefore, as many as be perfect, be thus minded: and if in any thing ye be otherwise minded, God shall reveal even this unto you.”

This has absolutely nothing to do with us working for our salvation. The Apostle Paul is talking about spiritual maturity/spiritual growth (notice “perfect;” verses 12 and 15). Once we gain a better understanding of God’s Word, we should put forth an effort to seek more sound doctrine, and desire to allow that sound doctrine to mature us in the inner man. Paul admits in verse 13 that he has not yet reached the level of spiritual maturity that he needs to, but that he is putting forth the effort in allowing God’s Word to work effectually in him, as he believes it.

Philippians 2:12 is another one false teachers like to twist, but notice what the verse actually says in the King James Bible: “Wherefore, my beloved, as ye have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling.” Again, there is no working for salvation here: the verse does not say “work for your own salvation,” the verse says “work out your own salvation.” This is talking about your lifestyle and testimony—if you claim to be saved, then act like it (do not fall prey to pride, which is the context)! (Another verse often misunderstood in this regard is 1 Corinthians 9:27.)

The next verse (Philippians 2:13) says, “For it is God which worketh in you both to will and to do of his good pleasure.” This means that you, as a Christian, should be yielding yourself to the Lord’s will so that He can do His work in you, so that your life will reflect God’s working in you (cf. Galatians 5:1-26). Recall that Paul forbade the Galatians from working for salvation (cf. Romans 4:1-5; Ephesians 2:8,9).

You will often hear of “he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved.” That phrase appears in the Bible three times: Matthew 10:22, Matthew 24:13, and Mark 13:13. Do not let someone (mis)quoting these verses make you doubt your salvation. The context of each of these verses is the seven-year Tribulation, Daniel’s 70th week. See for yourself; do not take my word for it. These verses are Israel’s program, and they have no relation to us today in this the Dispensation of Grace. (The Church the Body of Christ will be absent from earth during the Tribulation anyway!) This salvation is actually a physical salvation; “and except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved: but for the elect’s sake those days shall be shortened” (Matthew 24:22).

In Old Testament Israel, it can be quite difficult to establish how salvation worked. We do know that it was always by faith in what God said. Still, there was no permanent indwelling Holy Spirit, and He sometimes came to and went from people. In fact, King David writes in Psalm 51:11: “Cast me not away from thy presence; and take not thy holy spirit from me.” (Another verse people twist today to promote loss of salvation.) In light of 2 Samuel 7:15, we do not know if King Saul was saved or if he went to hellfire. Or, we know all of Israel was delivered out of Egypt, yet some Jews died in unbelief in the wilderness before they reached the Promised Land (Jude 5). But, remember, there was no permanent indwelling Holy Spirit back then. What we do know is that those Old Testament saints in Hebrews chapter 11 were saved.

None of those verses I just mentioned have anything to do with us—this is Israel’s program. We are under a new dispensation (grace) under a new apostleship (Paul), in a new program (mystery), and in a new agency (the Church the Body of Christ). We will discuss this more fully in a moment.

Okay, let us look at one final passage. Read 2 Peter 2:20-21: “[20] For if after they have escaped the pollutions of the world through the knowledge of the Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ, they are again entangled therein, and overcome, the latter end is worse with them than the beginning. [21] For it had been better for them not to have known the way of righteousness, than, after they have known it, to turn from the holy commandment delivered unto them.”

The context is false teachers. It relates to what discussed earlier in Hebrews chapters 2 and 6. Peter is referring to those who saw all the miracles of Acts chapters 2, but opposed God’s working and used false teaching to encourage other Jews to rebel against God’s purpose and program for Israel. Let me also say that anyone who fully understands the Gospel of Grace and how to be saved, and they reject it in unbelief, then yes, they are not saved. But they never had salvation to lose, so this is not loss of salvation!

Today, in this the Dispensation of the Grace of God, the Bible says that God accepts those who are “in the beloved,” in His Son Jesus Christ (Ephesians 1:6). How do we get “in Christ?” Trust in the Lord Jesus Christ, His death, burial, and resurrection as sufficient payment for your sins: see Paul’s Gospel of Grace in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4. “Christ died for our sins, He was buried, and He was raised again the third day for our justification.” Salvation from sins and hell and salvation unto justification (right standing before God) is instantaneous, not a lifelong process. If a true believer in Christ ever lost his/her salvation, that would mean God rejected His Son! You would have to throw away all the verses that Paul says confirms the believer’s salvation forever (Romans 5:1,2; Romans 8:29-39; 2 Corinthians 5:6-8; Ephesians 1:13,14; Ephesians 4:30; Philippians 1:6; 2 Timothy 1:12).

The Corinthians were the least spiritual and the most immature believers in Scripture. Yet, the Apostle Paul wrote that God would confirm (preserve) them unto the end so that they would be blameless at the rapture (1 Corinthians 1:7-8). Verse 9 tells us why—“God is faithful.” Believers in Christ make mistakes, but “the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin” (1 John 1:7). Colossians 1:14 says that “we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins.”

We have been forgiven of all trespasses and sins for Christ’s sake (Ephesians 4:32). Our salvation is not gained by our efforts, so our salvation cannot be maintained by our efforts (see Romans 11:6; Galatians 3:3; Colossians 2:6,7). How can sinful people go to heaven? When a person believes the Gospel of Grace, the blood of Jesus Christ and His righteousness are imputed (applied) to them (Romans 4:1-5). When a believer in Christ sins today, God does not see the sin, He only sees the blood of Jesus Christ (2 Corinthians 5:21).

Once we have salvation, we are sealed with the Holy Spirit until the rapture (Ephesians 1:13; Ephesians 4:30). God does not want you as a believer in Christ doubt your salvation. Our salvation does not depend on our performance or our faithfulness; the salvation we enjoy today as believers is solely dependent upon what Christ did for us already at Calvary!

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SUPPLEMENT

By the way, you should be aware of the heresy in modern English Bibles—NIV, NASB, NKJV, et al. promote progressive salvation!! In 1 Corinthians 1:18 and 2 Corinthians 2:15, does your Bible say “are being saved” rather than the ’s “are saved?” In 1 Peter 2:2, does your Bible say you can you “grow into salvation” rather than the ’s “grow [in maturity]?” Indeed, if you do not have God’s Word, you can promote false teaching. The Bible versions debate is a serious matter, so I suggest you get a King James Bible… it is the only solid ground in regards to God’s Word in English!

Also see:
» What is lordship salvation? (UPCOMING)
» Are we saved by faith alone, or by faith and works? (UPCOMING)
» What is the sin of presumption? (UPCOMING)