Category Archives: BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, DISPENSATIONAL BIBLE STUDY, Does not Acts 11:15 prove the Body of Christ began in Acts 2?, Does not Acts 11:15 prove the Body of Christ began in Acts 2?

Does not Acts 11:15 prove the Body of Christ began in Acts 2?

DOES NOT ACTS 11:15 PROVE THE CHURCH THE BODY OF CHRIST BEGAN IN ACTS 2?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Acts 11:15 says, “And as I began to speak, the Holy Ghost fell on them, as on us at the beginning.” What was that “beginning” found in Acts chapter 2, the day of Pentecost? Is this verse saying that Acts chapter 2 was the beginning of the Church the Body of Christ? While some have used this argument to force us into Pentecost, we will see what the Bible really says. Unless we have a denominational bias to hinder our understanding, this verse is amazingly simple. There are one-dozen reasons why the Church the Body of Christ did not begin in Acts chapter 2 on the day of Pentecost. (Please see our study linked at the end of this article.) To use one verse—Acts 11:15—to argue against dozens of verses is absolutely ridiculous. In fact, for someone to use Acts 11:15 in that manner is to demonstrate a desperate attempt to hang on to Pentecost with whatever it takes. Tradition is awfully difficult to abandon!

Acts 2:41 reads: “Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls.” If the Body of Christ really began at Pentecost, and the 12 apostles were saved before Pentecost, of what body of believers were they members? Obviously, there was “church” that existed prior to Acts chapter 2. That group was the “little flock” of Luke 12:32, the Messianic Church of Matthew 16:16-18. After Peter preached his famous sermon on Pentecost, the Bible says other disciples were “added unto them.” Again, on Pentecost, there was a preexisting group of believers. There is nothing, nothing, nothing new in Acts chapter 2, but rather it is a continuation of something already there.

Now, regarding Peter’s words in Acts 11:15, “And as I began to speak, the Holy Ghost fell on them, as on us at the beginning.” This certainly refers to Acts chapter 2, when the Holy Spirit came down from heaven and filled the apostles. (In chapter 11, Peter is saying that a similar event occurred with Cornelius in chapter 10.) That “beginning” refers to the beginning of the “last days” of Israel’s program (see Joel 2:28-29 and Acts 2:17-18). Peter, led by the Holy Ghost, says that the events of Pentecost are the “last days,” not the first days of anything. They are a further development of Israel’s prophetic program. Israel has just rejected and crucified Messiah Jesus (just as the Old Testament prophets predicted), the Holy Spirit has come (as the Old Testament prophets foretold), and now the wrath of God is coming (just as the Old Testament prophets predicted). Everything the prophets spoke of in the Old Testament is being fulfilled, and Peter is warning in Acts chapter 2 that the worst is yet to come! The “beginning of the final days of Israel’s program” is the only beginning that would make sense in Acts 11:15 and Acts chapter 2, considering the Body of Christ and our Dispensation of Grace are not spoken of in the Old Testament.

Also see:
» Did the Church the Body of Christ begin in Acts 2?
» When did the Church the Body of Christ begin?
» What is the “church” spoken of in Matthew 16:18?

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, Where was Jesus during the three days between His death and resurrection?

Where was Jesus during the three days between His death and resurrection?

WHERE WAS JESUS DURING THE THREE DAYS BETWEEN HIS DEATH AND RESURRECTION?

by Shawn Brasseaux

“Where was Jesus during the three days between His death and resurrection?”

Thank you for submitting this question. The concept is best understood by remembering that every human can be divided into an “inner/inward man” and an “outer/outward man.” This is the language of 2 Corinthians 4:16 and Ephesians 3:16. The outer man is the physical body (visible). The inner man is the spiritual body (invisible), and it can be divided into two parts—soul and spirit. (For more information, see our study, “What part of us is justified at salvation?,” linked at the end of this article.)

So, your original question can be refined so that it reads, “What happened to Jesus’ body, His soul, and His spirit, during those three days and three nights?” Each part of Jesus went to a different place.

1. WHAT HAPPENED TO JESUS’ PHYSICAL BODY?

It stayed in the tomb, lifeless and motionless, during those three days and nights. The Prophet Isaiah wrote the following Messianic prophecy some 700 years B.C.: “And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death; because he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth” (Isaiah 53:9). As a carpenter, Jesus was a poor man. His family was so destitute that they could not purchase a tomb for Him! We read about a “rich man,” “Joseph of Arimathaea,” a disciple of Jesus, who begged Governor Pilate for Jesus’ corpse. Joseph took the body and wrapped it in a clean linen cloth, “and laid it in his own new tomb, which he had hewn out in the rock” (Matthew 27:57-60; Mark 15:46).

Psalm 16:9-10 contains two more Messianic verses, written by King David over 1,000 years before Jesus Christ spoke them to the Father concerning His death: “[9] Therefore my heart is glad, and my glory rejoiceth: my flesh also shall rest in hope. [10] For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.” Strangely, the Bible says there was not the slightest evidence of decomposition (“corruption”) on that body. After four days in a similar rock tomb, or cave, Lazarus’ carcass began to stink (John 11:39). Only dead for three days, Jesus’ body never emitted a foul odor. Once those three days and three nights expired (cf. Matthew 12:39,40), the Lord Jesus Christ burst forth, alive and well! God the Father by the power of the Holy Spirit raised Jesus’ physical body from the dead (Romans 8:11).

2. WHAT HAPPENED TO JESUS’ SOUL?

The soul is the “real” us. Jesus said that the repentant thief crucified on a cross next to Him, “Verily I say unto thee, To day thou shalt be with me in paradise” (Luke 23:43). Jesus’ soul went down into the heart of the Earth: “[39] But he answered and said unto them, An evil and adulterous generation seeketh after a sign; and there shall no sign be given to it, but the sign of the prophet Jonas: [40] For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale’s belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth” (Matthew 12:39-40). This was called “Abraham’s bosom” in Luke chapter 16. Existing only prior to Calvary, it was a place in the center of the Earth where all souls went who died having the faith of Abraham. It was place for believers, not lost people. These were the saints of old who lived in anticipation of God’s earthly kingdom being established through Israel. Exactly what Jesus’ soul did in the spirit world for the three days and three nights, the Scriptures do not say. For more information, see our study, “Did Jesus Christ die and go to hell?,” linked at the end of this study.)

3. WHAT HAPPENED TO JESUS’ SPIRIT?

The last statement Jesus uttered from the cross of Calvary is found in Luke 23:46: “And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost.” Once Jesus gave up His spirit, it went back to the third heaven, to God the Father who gave it. “Who knoweth the spirit of man that goeth upward, and the spirit of the beast that goeth downward to the earth?” (Ecclesiastes 3:21). “Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto God who gave it” (Ecclesiastes 12:7). The spirit is that which gives life to the physical body, and the spirit is the part of man that communicates with Father God.

WHAT HAPPENED AT THE RESURRECTION

At the resurrection on Sunday, Jesus’ soul and spirit reentered that physical body in the tomb, and the tomb was vacated. That body lived on planet Earth for some hours before appearing to Mary Magdalene and then ascending to the Father in heaven (John 20:11-18). Jesus came back down to Earth for doubting Thomas to touch Him eight days later (John 20:24-29). About 30 days after that, Jesus ascended to the Father’s right hand to stay there permanently (Mark 16:19; Luke 24:51; Acts 1:9-11)—Jesus spent 40 days total on Earth post-resurrection (Acts 1:3). The Lord Jesus Christ has physically been at His Father’s right hand in the third heaven for the last 2,000 years (Ephesians 1:20; Colossians 3:1).

SUPPLEMENTAL: DID JESUS PREACH THE GOSPEL TO THOSE IN HELL?

Certainly not! It is a common view but it is not Scripture. It is tradition. As far as the Bible record goes, Jesus Christ did not preach to anyone in the afterlife. He did not proclaim that His blood had now been shed to pay for believers’ sins. That information would not be revealed until Paul’s ministry over a year later. Also Jesus did not give lost people in hell’s torments a second chance to go to heaven. These erroneous views are partly based on a faulty interpretation of 1 Peter 3:19-21. In that passage, Peter was not talking about Jesus Christ preaching post-death. If you read these verses closely, you will learn that he was teaching that the Spirit who raised Jesus from the dead, was the same Spirit who had preached through Noah during the days just before the Great Flood.

Also see:
» Did Jesus Christ really die on a Friday?
» Did Jesus go to hell? (COMING SOON!)
» What part of us is justified at salvation?

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, How are we “able ministers of the new testament?”

How are we “able ministers of the new testament?”

HOW ARE WE “ABLE MINISTERS OF THE NEW TESTAMENT?” DOES THAT MEAN WE ARE UNDER THE NEW COVENANT?

by Shawn Brasseaux

“What does Paul mean in 2 Corinthians 3:6 when he says we are ‘able ministers of the new testament?’ 2 Corinthians 3:6: ‘Who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life.’ He can’t mean Israel’s New Covenant in Jeremiah 31, or can he? Testament and covenant seem to be used interchangeably in Scripture but they are also different words. Thanks.”

Friend, this verse once puzzled me for some time. I am sure it has perplexed many others. As long as we are sure to keep definitions straight, the matter is simple. While people use “covenant” and “testament” interchangeably in normal conversation, it would be best just to leave them in their respective verses in the King James Bible. (I am well aware that modern English versions remove all references to the “new testament” and insert “New Covenant” instead. While the Greek word for “testament” is the same as the Greek word for “covenant,” as you pointed out, they are different terms in English. Our 1611 King James translators occasionally used “testament” to emphasize a special teaching; we will see that “nuance” doctrine momentarily. That is why I would not recommend using “covenant” and “testament” interchangeably when it comes to Bible study.).

COVENANT

Our English word “covenant” is a Middle English term from the Old French, present participle of covenir ‘agree,’ from Latin convenire (see convene). “Covenant” (Greek, diatheke) appears in our King James Bible some 295 times (mostly in Genesis through Malachi, but 20 times in the books of Matthew through Revelation). As you can see from its etymology, the word “covenant” is merely a “contract or agreement.” In the Bible, it is usually an agreement that God makes with people (whether Noah, Abram, Isaac, Jacob, Moses, national Israel, et cetera). “Testament,” however, is a more specific term.

TESTAMENT

Our English word “testament” is a Middle English term from the Latin testamentum ‘a will’ (from testari ‘testify’). “Testament” (Greek, diatheke) appears 14 times in our King James Bible—all in the books of Matthew through Revelation. We will take a little time to look at these occurrences:

  • Matthew 26:28: “For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.”
  • Mark 14:24: “And he said unto them, This is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many.”
  • Luke 22:20: “Likewise also the cup after supper, saying, This cup is the new testament in my blood, which is shed for you.”
  • 1 Corinthians 11:25: “After the same manner also he took the cup, when he had supped, saying, this cup is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me.”
  • 2 Corinthians 3:6: “Who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life.”
  • 2 Corinthians 3:14: “But their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of the old testament; which vail is done away in Christ.”
  • Hebrews 7:22: “By so much was Jesus made a surety of a better testament.”
  • Hebrews 9:15: “And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance.”
  • Hebrews 9:16: “For where a testament is, there must also of necessity be the death of the testator.”
  • Hebrews 9:17: “For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth.”
  • Hebrews 9:18: “Whereupon neither the first testament was dedicated without blood.”
  • Hebrews 9:20: “Saying, This is the blood of the testament which God hath enjoined unto you.”
  • Revelation 11:19: “And the temple of God was opened in heaven, and there was seen in his temple the ark of his testament: and there were lightnings, and voices, and thunderings, and an earthquake, and great hail.”

If you noticed above, “testament” is generally used in conjunction with the death of someone or something (that is, the shed blood of the Lord Jesus Christ or the shed blood of animals). Perhaps you can reread those verses above as you keep that in mind. Now, pay close attention to Hebrews 9:16-17, about how a testament is of force after the death of the testator. Jesus Christ had to die on the cross before the New Testament could be introduced. In legal terms, we talk about someone’s “last will and testament.” This is a legally binding document that someone makes in order to manage his or her estate (possessions, et cetera) after death. Our King James Bible is using the word “testament” in that sense—it is most often used in connection with Jesus Christ’s death at Calvary.

Now we can go back to 2 Corinthians 3:1-6 to exposit the passage and answer your question about the New Covenant: “[1] Do we begin again to commend ourselves? or need we, as some others, epistles of commendation to you, or letters of commendation from you? [2] Ye are our epistle written in our hearts, known and read of all men: [3] Forasmuch as ye are manifestly declared to be the epistle of Christ ministered by us, written not with ink, but with the Spirit of the living God; not in tables of stone, but in fleshy tables of the heart. [4] And such trust have we through Christ to God-ward: [5] Not that we are sufficient of ourselves to think any thing as of ourselves; but our sufficiency is of God; [6] Who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life.”

In the New Covenant, God writes His laws in each and every believing Jew’s heart (Jeremiah 31:31-34; Hebrews 8:8-13; Hebrews 10:15-17). But, contrary to popular opinion, we are not Israel and we are not under the New Covenant. Jeremiah 31:31 says the New Covenant will be given to “the house of Israel” and “the house of Judah.” We are neither. Never once did Paul quote Jeremiah 31:31 and apply it to us. The closest passage to Jeremiah 31:31-34 that Paul wrote is Romans 11:27, and Romans 11:27 applies to Israel (see verses 25-26). When the writer of Hebrews quoted Jeremiah 31:31-34 twice, on both occasions, it was a reference to Israel (Hebrews 8:8-13; Hebrews 10:15-17). So, what did Paul mean in the above passage?

There was a certain leading faction in Corinth that had turned these believers away from Paul’s apostleship. Throughout this second epistle to Corinth, he had to defend his apostleship (see chapters 10-13). Paul said that he did not need “epistles of commendation to [the Corinthians], or letters of commendation from [the Corinthians].” In other words, Paul did not need proof from others to show that he was a legitimate apostle of Jesus Christ. He did not need letters of approval from anyone, even from the Corinthians. Instead, he pointed to the Corinthian believers’ abandonment of idols and conversion to the living God as proof of his apostleship. Additionally, chapters 4 and 11 of 2 Corinthians document that Paul was a legitimate apostle of Christ because Paul suffered greatly for the Gospel’s sake.

In this the Dispensation of Grace, we are the Church the Body of Christ. According to Romans 6:14-15, we are under grace not law. As we discussed earlier, Israel will have God’s laws written in their hearts. Paul is saying in 2 Corinthians 3:1-6 that Father God writes “Jesus Christ according to the revelation of the mystery,” in our hearts. The Holy Spirit (cf. 2 Corinthians 3:17) writes not on tables of stone and He does not write the “letter” (a reference to the Ten Commandments, the Law). Rather, He writes Paul’s epistles and He writes them in our hearts. We are Romans through Philemon, Paul’s epistles. Our salvation in Christ is proof of Paul’s apostleship. The grace doctrine working in us is proof of Paul’s ministry. God has written His words, the message of His grace, in us. In chapter 4, verse 7, Paul will go on to say that “we have this treasure in earthen vessels, that the excellency of the power may be of God, and not of us.” This “treasure in earthen vessels” is the “life of Jesus made manifest in our body” (verse 10), Him living in and through our bodies as we walk by faith in those epistles of Paul!

By God’s sufficiency, through His Word to us, by power of the Holy Spirit, we are now able to minister (or proclaim) the benefits of Jesus Christ’s death (His finished crosswork). We are not under covenants of any kind in this the Dispensation of the Grace of God. We are simply recipients of God’s grace, enjoying what He wanted to give us, apart from anything He promised us. The grace that God will give national Israel one day, we are enjoying that grace today by way of the Dispensation of Grace! It is through Jesus Christ’s death, burial, and resurrection we can receive the forgiveness of sins now (Romans 5:11). National Israel has to wait for until the Second Coming to get that grace and forgiveness through the New Covenant (Zechariah 12:10; Acts 3:19-21; Romans 11:26-27).

According to Romans 3:19-20, the Mosaic Law (or, Old Covenant) was not made with us Gentiles, and yet it still affected us because it condemned us as sinners before God. Likewise, the New Covenant is not made with us and yet still affects us in the sense that we can use its underlying crosswork to get to heaven (Ephesians 2:11-13). The Law condemns us to hell as sinners and yet Christ’s finished crosswork saves us by making us saints. In the end, God levels it all out. Because of Adam we are condemned before God, but, because of Jesus Christ, we can be declared righteous before God.

CONCLUSION

While “covenant” and “testament” are the same Greek word (diatheke), “testament” stresses a special type of agreement. A “testament” is only valid after the testator dies, whereas a “covenant” is in force while the maker is living. This is why our King James Bible uses “testament” instead of “covenant” in 2 Corinthians 3:6 (and other places). We are not under the New Covenant, but we are affected by the “new testament.” It is for the above reasons that I do not recommend using “covenant” and “testament” interchangeably when it comes to these Bible passages (especially 2 Corinthians 3:6).

Paul is saying in 2 Corinthians 3:1-6 that we can now minister to others (saved or lost) in light of Jesus Christ’s death at Calvary. Our sufficiency is of God, and so, we are “able” (equipped) to be “ministers of the new testament.” God the Father has committed unto us Christians the word of reconciliation, the message of how He reconciled the world unto Himself by Jesus Christ (2 Corinthians 5:18-20). They can now be made right in God’s sight by simple faith in Calvary’s crosswork (2 Corinthians 5:21). This is all done by the working of the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit works in us to bring them the Gospel, and He works in them that they see the Gospel with clarity.

Also see:
» Are the books of Matthew through John “Old Testament” or “New Testament?”
» What does 2 Corinthians 5:19 mean?
» Are all Christians “ambassadors,” or just Paul and his ministry companions?

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, Could you explain Acts 19:1-7?, Could you explain Acts 19:1-7?, DISPENSATIONAL BIBLE STUDY

Could you explain Acts 19:1-7?

COULD YOU PLEASE EXPLAIN ACTS 19:1-7?

by Shawn Brasseaux

“Hi Shawn, could you comment on Acts 19:1-7? Thanks.”

Yes, I would be glad to comment on it. You are welcome. This passage can be quite tricky and cryptic if we fail to remember the context of the latter two-thirds of the book of Acts. The book of Acts is the most difficult book in the New Testament Scriptures because people do not understand—or they refuse to understand—its transitional nature. Here, we will “rightly divide the word of truth” (2 Timothy 2:15). We will make the distinction between Israel’s prophetic program (Acts 3:21) and our mystery program (Romans 16:25). In doing so, we will avoid the confusion that most people experience concerning Acts chapter 19.

We will begin reading Acts chapter 19: “[1] And it came to pass, that, while Apollos was at Corinth, Paul having passed through the upper coasts came to Ephesus: and finding certain disciples, [2] He said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost. [3] And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John’s baptism. [4] Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus. [5] When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. [6] And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied. [7] And all the men were about twelve.”

What a strange passage, huh? The Apostle Paul had to lay hands on some “disciples” who did not have the Holy Ghost? How was that possible for believers not to have the Holy Spirit?! They had received John’s baptism but they did not even know there was such a Person as the Holy Ghost? What?! My dear friends, like I said in our opening remarks, if we do not recognize the transitional nature of the book of Acts, we do not have a prayer in the world to understand the Bible. We must approach this passage dispensationally. If we are to make sense of these verses, we have to go back and review some basics of dispensational Bible study. Once we do that, we will return to the passage in question and it will become much clearer.

In the Bible, until we come to the ministry of the Apostle Paul (Saul of Tarsus was saved in Acts chapter 9), God is dealing with the nation Israel. Hence, John the Baptist’s ministry was limited to Israel (Luke 1:16-17,80; Acts 13:24), Jesus Christ’s earthly ministry (Matthew through John) was restricted to Israel (Matthew 10:5-7; Matthew 15:24; Luke 19:9; John 1:11; Romans 9:5; Romans 15:8), and Peter and the 11 other apostles’ ministry were limited to Israel during early Acts (Acts 2:36; Acts 3:13,25; Acts 4:8; Acts 5:30-31; Acts 7:2).

During a total of four years (Matthew chapter 3 through Acts chapter 7), Israel refused to listen to the preaching of John the Baptist, Jesus, Peter, the other 11 apostles of Israel, and other men but especially the prophet Stephen. The Jews refused to acknowledge and trust Jesus as Messiah, and they refused to accept the water baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. So, in Acts chapter 7, when Israel stoned Stephen, her prophetic program fell through. That Israeli prophetic program was fully diminished by the end of the book of Acts. Once national Israel stoned God’s prophet Stephen (blasphemy against the Holy Spirit; Matthew 12:31-32), the ascended and glorified Lord Jesus Christ raised up Saul/Paul, a new apostle. He gave Paul a new message and began a new program (that would be Acts chapter 9 onward). Our Dispensation of Grace started with Paul and it will end beyond our present-day. As long as our program is operating, Israel’s program will remain suspended.

The latter two-thirds of the book of Acts (chapters 9-28) can be very confusing unless we keep Romans 11:11-14 in mind. The first step in understanding Acts 19:1-7 is to consider Romans 11:11-14: “[11] I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy. [12] Now if the fall of them be the riches of the world, and the diminishing of them the riches of the Gentiles; how much more their fulness? [13] For I speak to you Gentiles, inasmuch as I am the apostle of the Gentiles, I magnify mine office: [14] If by any means I may provoke to emulation them which are my flesh, and might save some of them.”

According to the Old Testament prophetic program, Israel should have arisen to her kingdom glory. She should have accepted and trusted her Messiah-King Jesus, and in the kingdom He would then establish on the earth, Israel would be a kingdom of priests who would evangelize the Gentiles (see Exodus 19:5-6; Isaiah 59:21-60:3; Isaiah 61:6; Zechariah 8:20-23; et cetera). When national Israel refused to accept Jesus but rather crucified Him, and then rejected a renewed opportunity of repentance in early Acts, God caused her program to fall away for a time. That is what Paul is saying in Romans 11:11-12. Israel stumbled at Christ’s earthly ministry (and ultimately at Calvary’s cross) but they did not fall (Romans 9:32-33). Israel later stumbled in early Acts by rejecting God the Holy Spirit who was speaking through Stephen (Acts 7:51,55). It was there in Acts chapter 7 that Israel finally fell before God.

Today, national Israel is “fallen” (Romans 11:11-12). Now, God sees no difference between Jew and Gentile (Romans 3:22; Galatians 3:28; Colossians 3:11). God only sees sinners (lost) and saints (saved). Throughout the book of Acts, from Acts chapter 7 to the end of the book of Acts (chapter 28), Israel’s program is “diminishing.” Paul wrote the book of Romans during the Acts period (circa Acts chapter 20). One day, after God is finished dealing with the Church the Body of Christ, it will be raptured and brought into Heaven, and then He will resume Israel’s program (see Romans 11:25-29; 1 Thessalonians 4:13–5:9; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-12).

Romans 11:13 quoted above says that Paul is “the apostle of the Gentiles.” Unlike John the Baptist, or Jesus in His earthly ministry, or the Apostles Peter and the 11, or Stephen, the Apostle Paul has a ministry that is not limited to Israel. Paul is God’s spokesman to Gentiles. This term “Gentiles” would include lost Jews, since Israel fell before God years earlier in Acts chapter 7. In order to validate Paul’s ministry and show Israel that her program was diminishing, God temporarily granted Paul the power to perform miraculous demonstrations and exhibit other “Jewish-related behavior” (Acts chapters 9 through 28). Throughout Acts, we read how Paul healed the sick (Acts chapter 14), he circumcised Timothy (Acts chapter 16), he water baptized (Acts chapter 16; Acts chapter 18), he raised the dead (Acts chapter 20), he offered sacrifices in the Temple (Acts chapter 21), he spoke in tongues (1 Corinthians chapter 14), and he survived a snake bite (Acts chapter 28). The miraculous demonstrations and other behaviors that Jesus and His 12 apostles performed in Matthew through John and early Acts, Paul was now doing them. This “strange” behavior of Paul was communicating to Israel that her God was now amongst the Gentiles through Paul’s ministry and message. Acts chapters 9 through 28 is a major transitional section of the Bible. It is the record of God being just (fair) in setting Israel aside for a time and going to the Gentiles through Paul’s ministry. Eventually, Paul quit water baptizing (1 Corinthians 1:14-17), he could no longer heal himself or other Christians who were sick (Galatians 4:11-13; 1 Timothy 5:23; 2 Timothy 4:20), and so on.

Let us re-read Romans 11:14: “If by any means I may provoke to emulation them which are my flesh, and might save some of them.” The way Paul would “provoke to emulation them which are my flesh”—that is, the way Paul would encourage his lost Jewish brethren to behave like Gentiles and trust Jesus Christ—was by performing Israel’s signs, miracles, and wonders. Although unbelieving Israel did not like Paul, and desperately tried to hinder his ministry throughout Acts, they were fully aware that the God of their fathers was working in him. Their miracles were now evident amongst the Gentiles (Paul’s ministry).

Okay, with this information as background, Acts 19:1-7 will make more sense. Let us re-read that passage: “[1] And it came to pass, that, while Apollos was at Corinth, Paul having passed through the upper coasts came to Ephesus: and finding certain disciples, [2] He said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost. [3] And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John’s baptism. [4] Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus. [5] When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. [6] And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied. [7] And all the men were about twelve.”

While Apollos was in Corinth (Acts 18:27), Paul traveled to Ephesus (on the western shore of modern-day Turkey). Paul encountered some disciples, and he asked them, “Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed?” They replied, “We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost.” Paul then responded, “Unto what then were ye baptized?” They replied, “Unto John’s baptism.” Like Apollos (Acts 18:25-26), these Jews were ignorant of further revelations from God. They too are fixated on John the Baptist’s ministry and message. John’s ministry was 20 years earlier, and these disciples were unaware of the progression of God’s program since John’s ministry. They did not know about Jesus’ earthly ministry, His death, His resurrection, His ascension into heaven, the coming of the Holy Ghost on the day Pentecost, Paul’s salvation, et cetera. Note how these 12 Jews in Acts chapter 19 admitted that they did not even know about the Holy Spirit. (How strange, huh?! What in the world is going on here? How do we make sense of all of this?!)

Remember, Jesus had told His disciples to wait in Jerusalem to receive the Holy Spirit in Acts chapter 2 (see Luke 24:49; Acts 1:4-5; cf. John 14:26; John 15:26; John 16:7). These disciples whom Paul met in Acts 19:1-7 were evidently not in Jerusalem when the Holy Spirit came in Acts chapter 2 some 20 years earlier. Furthermore, the 12 apostles of Israel had never laid hands on these 12 Jews in order for them to receive the Holy Ghost (see Acts 8:14-17). Hence, they did not have the Holy Ghost and this is why they were not even aware of His presence on Earth. By the way, we know Acts 19:1-7 has nothing to do with us because no man needs to lay hands on us in order for us to receive the Holy Ghost. We receive the Holy Spirit when we trust the Gospel of Grace, Christ died for our sins, was buried, and rose again the third day (see Ephesians 1:12-14; 1 Corinthians 15:3-4). See, again, dispensational Bible study helps us come to terms with the various verses in the Bible that are meant to be separated.

Paul informed these 12 men in Acts 19:1-7 that John the Baptist did water baptize via the baptism of repentance, but John also preached that the people of Israel should believe on the Lord Jesus Christ who would come after him (Matthew 3:11-12; Mark 1:7-8; Luke 3:16-17; John 1:29-31). Once these Jews heard Paul’s preaching, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. Paul then laid his hands on them, and they received the Holy Ghost. The gift of speaking in tongues (intelligent human languages never formally learned) is given to them, and they preach God’s Word. The Bible says these Jews were about 12 in number. This may refer back to Israel’s 12 apostles, men who had received the gift of tongues back in Acts chapter 2. Israel’s apostles, once they received the Holy Spirit, would then lay hands on believers in Israel’s program so they could receive the Holy Spirit (Acts 8:14-17; cf. Acts 9:17). Again, none of Israel’s apostles had visited these 12 Jews, nor were these 12 Jews present in Jerusalem to receive the Holy Ghost in Acts chapter 2, which Jesus had instructed His believers to do in Acts 1:4-5.

In this passage of Acts 19:1-7, God was demonstrating to Israel that He was working through Paul, for Paul was doing the same things Israel’s apostles did. This odd and often controversial and confusing passage is actually God validating Paul’s apostleship. It has nothing to do with us because it occurred during the transitional Acts period, while God was moving from Israel to the Gentiles. Paul, when teaching the Church the Body of Christ in his epistles of Romans through Philemon, never instructs us to be water baptized, or to lay hands on people to heal them, or to give the Holy Ghost to others, et cetera. Acts 19:1-7 is not a pattern for us to follow. It was simply something God wanted Paul to do in order to teach Israel doctrine. God wanted Paul to teach Israel that his ministry was replacing Peter and the 11’s, and if any lost Jews wanted salvation, they would have to come to his ministry and Gospel message.

As one final note, you might have seen that the Holy Spirit thought it noteworthy to tell us that these Jews in Acts 19:7 “were about twelve.” We briefly mentioned earlier that 12 in Bible numerics is a reference to the nation Israel. God was saying that if lost Israel wanted to receive the Holy Spirit, they should not go to the 12 apostles (for their ministry and program was fallen). Even today, if a lost Jew wants to receive the Holy Spirit, they will have to come to God through the ministry and message that Jesus Christ gave to the Apostle Paul. They will have to come to Father God the same way a Gentile comes!

SUPPLEMENTAL: SHOULD ACTS 19:2 READ “SINCE” OR “WHEN?”

“He said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost.”

Since the average English Bible translator—like the average English Bible reader—does not recognize the dispensational nature of the Holy Bible, he or she tries to make every Bible verse agree with every other Bible verse. After all, denominations have drilled into most people’s minds that everything in the Bible is all the same thing. It will not be surprising then to learn that translators change the wording of verses that are at variance with each other. They introduce their theological biases into the Bible instead of letting the Bible passages highlight the changes in God’s dealings with man through time. They smooth over the distinct verses that differentiate the dispensations from each other. The tampering with of Acts 19:2 in modern English versions is a perfect example of this mishandling of God’s Word. Acts 19:2 is a rather troublesome verse because it, as found in the King James, opposes the widely held belief that there is only one Gospel in the Bible and that all salvation messages in the Bible are the same.

Again, we read in our King James Bible: “He said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost.” This is a very difficult reading for most to accept because they do not understand how Israel’s salvation worked in her program and how our salvation works in this the Dispensation of Grace. Why did Paul ask them, “Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed?” Why did Paul not ask, as modern versions read, “Did you receive the Holy Ghost when you believed?” We know when one believes on the finished crosswork of Jesus Christ as sufficient payment for their sins, they instantly receive the Holy Spirit in this the Dispensation of Grace (Ephesians 1:13-14). They receive the Holy Spirit instantly: they receive Him when they believe on Jesus Christ. Yet, why did Paul ask these Jews in Acts 19:2, “Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed?”

Friends, please pay very close attention to these next several lines. You will avoid much confusion by just listening to these simple truths. In Israel’s program, salvation in Israel’s believing remnant had phases. Jews were to accept and participate in John’s water baptism during Jesus’ earthly ministry, but there was no indwelling Holy Spirit until Acts chapter 2. The Holy Spirit would not come upon an individual believing Jew until the day of Pentecost in Acts chapter 2. The Jews of Acts 19:1-7 had participated in John’s water baptism (Matthew through John), but they did not receive the Holy Ghost because they were not in Jerusalem in Acts chapter 2. The 12 apostles had not imparted to them the Holy Spirit. Hence, our King James Bible says “since.” “Since” was a reference to Acts chapter 2—Acts chapter 2 being the passage “since” (or, following) John the Baptist’s ministry. That is why our King James Bible does not say “when.” “When” would be a reference to how salvation operates today—“when” we believe the Gospel we instantly receive the Holy Spirit (Ephesians 1:13-14). The King James Bible has the correct reading in Acts 19:2 (“since”); the modern versions are in error.

“Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you believed?” is the erroneous retranslation of Acts 19:2 in the Amplified Bible, Darby Translation, English Standard Version, Good News Bible, Holman Christian Standard Bible, J. B. Phillip’s New Testament, The Message, New American Standard Version, New Century Version, New English Translation, New International Reader’s Version, New International Version, New King James Version, New Living Translation, New Revised Standard Version, Revised Standard Version, New World Translation (Jehovah’s Witness Bible), and The Voice. In other words, the popular Bibles people use today keep the glorious truths of Acts 19:2 hidden. They destroy the clarity of God’s Word rightly divided. All the more reason to keep our King James Bible! By the way, the Roman Catholic Douay-Rheims 1899 American edition has “since” (the correct reading in Acts 19:2, agreeing with the King James Bible)!

Also see:
» Why did Paul water baptize?
» Can you explain Paul’s “Acts” ministry?
» Why was Saul of Tarsus’ name changed to Paul?

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, ESCHATOLOGY (END TIMES) / PROPHECY, THE NATION ISRAEL, What does “a land flowing with milk and honey” mean?, What does “a land flowing with milk and honey” mean?, What does “a land flowing with milk and honey” mean?

What does “a land flowing with milk and honey” mean?

WHAT DOES “A LAND FLOWING WITH MILK AND HONEY” MEAN?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Anyone who has grown up in church has undoubtedly heard the Promised Land being referred to as “a land flowing with milk and honey.” It is a most curious expression, is it not? Have you ever wondered what it means? As always, whenever we have a Bible question, we need to search the Bible to gain insight. “For what saith the Scriptures?”

The phrase “a land flowing [or ‘that floweth’] with milk and honey” appears 20 times in our King James Bible—Exodus 3:8, Exodus 3:17, Exodus 13:5, Exodus 33:3, Leviticus 20:24, Numbers 13:27, Numbers 14:8, Numbers 16:13, Numbers 16:14, Deuteronomy 6:3, Deuteronomy 11:9, Deuteronomy 26:9, Deuteronomy 26:15, Deuteronomy 27:3, Deuteronomy 31:20, Joshua 5:6, Jeremiah 11:5, Jeremiah 32:22, Ezekiel 20:6, and Ezekiel 20:15. While you are encouraged to look at all of these references on your own, we will look at a few of them here.

As just mentioned, the expression first appears in the Bible is Exodus 3:8, when the LORD appeared to Moses in the burning bush. The LORD said to Moses: “And I am come down to deliver them out of the hand of the Egyptians, and to bring them up out of that land unto a good land and a large, unto a land flowing with milk and honey; unto the place of the Canaanites, and the Hittites, and the Amorites, and the Perizzites, and the Hivites, and the Jebusites.” God said He would deliver the nation Israel from Egyptian slavery and bring them into the Promised Land, “a land flowing with milk and honey.” Later, as He promised, He rescued them from Egypt, and He brought them to the edge of the Promised Land.

By the time of Numbers chapter 13, Israel had been free from Egypt for just over a year. The Jews had sent 12 spies to explore the land of Palestine. Moses instructed these spies: “And [see] what the land is, whether it be fat or lean, whether there be wood therein, or not. And be ye of good courage, and bring of the fruit of the land. Now the time was the time of the firstripe grapes” (verse 20).

In verse 23, the spies arrived at the brook of Eshcol, and cut down a grape cluster (“Eshcol” is Hebrew for “grape cluster;” verse 24). This one cluster of grapes was so enormous that two men had to carry it on a pole! The spies also collected figs and pomegranates. After 40 days of scouting, the spies returned to Moses and Israel’s camp and showed them Canaan’s fruit: “And they told him [Moses], and said, We came unto the land whither thou sentest us, and surely it floweth with milk and honey; and this is the fruit of it” (verse 27). Numbers 14:7-8 continues: “[7] And they spake unto all the company of the children of Israel, saying, The land, which we passed through to search it, is an exceeding good land. [8] If the LORD delight in us, then he will bring us into this land, and give it us; a land which floweth with milk and honey.” Deuteronomy 11:10-12 and Deuteronomy 31:20 also confirm that “flowing with milk and honey” indicated Canaan was a land of high agricultural productivity (pollination, green grass, flowering trees, water resources, abundant food, et cetera). Just think… rebellious Israel refused to go in!

God had been faithful in delivering Israel from centuries of Egyptian slavery. Now, He would be faithful to bring her into an “exceeding good land.” But, Israel doubted God, and wanted to send 12 spies to explore that land. After 40 days of exploring Canaan, the spies returned to Israel’s camp. Canaan, the Promised Land, was abounding with food and water, high agricultural productivity (“a land flowing with milk and honey”). The presence of milk-producing animals implied grasses and other vegetation. Honey indicated pollinating creatures such as bees. The spies showed Israel the large grape cluster, the pomegranates, and the figs they had collected in Canaan (Numbers 13:21-27). The 12 spies confirmed that God had indeed given them a very great land, but 10 spies feared military defeat by the Gentiles dwelling therein, so Israel refused to enter (Numbers 13:28–14:11). Thus, God, in His righteous anger, punished them via the 40-year wilderness wandering (Deuteronomy 1:21-ff.).

Today, the Promised Land does not exhibit the beauty it had in Moses’ day. It is desolate and barren. But, that will change at Christ’s Second Coming and the following earthly kingdom. The Promised Land will be restored, and the curse of sin will be broken (Isaiah 51:3; Joel 3:17-21, Micah 4:1-3; et al.).

In fact, according to Amos 9:11-15, the LORD promised: “[11] In that day will I raise up the tabernacle of David that is fallen, and close up the breaches thereof; and I will raise up his ruins, and I will build it as in the days of old: [12] That they may possess the remnant of Edom, and of all the heathen, which are called by my name, saith the LORD that doeth this. [13] Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that the plowman shall overtake the reaper, and the treader of grapes him that soweth seed; and the mountains shall drop sweet wine, and all the hills shall melt. [14] And I will bring again the captivity of my people of Israel, and they shall build the waste cities, and inhabit them; and they shall plant vineyards, and drink the wine thereof; they shall also make gardens, and eat the fruit of them. [15] And I will plant them upon their land, and they shall no more be pulled up out of their land which I have given them, saith the LORD thy God.”

One day, Israel will eternally dwell in her land, “a land flowing with milk and honey.” The best is yet to come for the little nation of Israel!

Also see:
» Is God finished with the nation Israel?
» Who is “the Bride of Christ?”
» When will the Old Testament saints be resurrected?

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, What does the Bible say Jesus was hanged on a “tree?”

Why does the Bible say Jesus was hanged on a “tree?”

WHY DOES THE BIBLE SAY JESUS WAS HANGED ON A “TREE?”

by Shawn Brasseaux

“Jesus was ‘hanged on a tree?’ What exactly does that mean? Why does the Bible say ‘tree’ instead of ‘cross?’” Thank you for that question. You are evidently misunderstanding the verse because of its usage of “tree.” When the King James Bible says Jesus was hanged on a “tree,” the Greek word thus translated is xulon (“wood”). Note those five occurrences:

  • Acts 5:30: “The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, whom ye slew and hanged on a tree.”
  • Acts 10:39: “And we are witnesses of all things which he did both in the land of the Jews, and in Jerusalem; whom they slew and hanged on a tree:”
  • Acts 13:29: “And when they had fulfilled all that was written of him, they took him down from the tree, and laid him in a sepulchre.”
  • Galatians 3:13: “Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree:”
  • 1 Peter 2:24: “Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed.”

It would be profitable to see how our 1611 translators handled that Greek word xulon elsewhere in the New Testament.

  • When the multitude came with Judas to arrest Jesus, the Bible says they came with “swords and staves” (Matthew 26:47). “Staves,” wooden clubs, in Greek, is xulon (also translated “tree”). This word appears again in verse 55.
  • In discussing the quality of the Christian’s doctrine evaluated at the Judgment Seat of Christ, Paul talked about “gold, silver, precious stones, wood, hay, stubble” (1 Corinthians 3:12). “Wood” is xulon.
  • Jesus Christ, dictating to the Apostle John what he is to write to the Jewish assembly at Ephesus, said: “He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches; To him that overcometh will I give to eat of the tree of life, which is in the midst of the paradise of God” (Revelation 2:7). In the New Heaven and New Earth, we read about the “tree of life” bearing twelve manner of fruits, yielding fruit every month, and the “leaves of the tree” were “for the healing of the nations” (Revelation 22:2). Xulon is translated three times in these three verses, “tree.” The “tree of life” is again mentioned in Revelation 22:14.
  • While describing the wealth of the Antichrist’s government, and its economic collapse, we read of gold, silver, precious stones, pearls, fine linen, purple, silk, scarlet, thyine wood, ivory vessels, precious wood vessels, brass, iron, and marble (Revelation 18:22). Xulon is twice translated “wood” in this verse.

CONCLUSION

When the Bible says Jesus was hung on a “tree,” tree is being used in the general sense of “a structure made of wood” (The Oxford American Dictionary says this is the archaic and poetic/literary definition of “tree”). It was not a tree in the sense of Jesus being nailed to something growing in the ground with branches and leaves. It was some type of wooden structure, a tree that had already been cut down, stripped of leaves and branches, and trimmed into beams that could be carried by men (Matthew 27:32; Mark 15:21; Luke 23:26; John 19:17).

Also see:
» What was the shape of Jesus’ cross? (COMING SOON!)
» Did Mary, Jesus’ mother, have a sister also named Mary?
» Why does the Bible say that Jesus was “slain and hanged on a tree?”

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, Is “Jerusalem” my hometown?

Is “Jerusalem” my hometown?

IS “JERUSALEM” MY HOMETOWN?

by Shawn Brasseaux

In an effort to promote missions and evangelism, some sincere people have greatly abused Acts 1:8: “But ye shall receive power, after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth.” Jerusalem is said to be our hometown, Judaea is allegedly the larger region around our hometown, Samaria is supposedly the rest of our nation, and “the uttermost part of the earth” is said to be the nations of the world. Acts 1:8 is said to be our pattern for soul winning—start in our hometown before moving outward to the world’s nations. We are convinced that Acts 1:8 has nothing, absolutely nothing, to do with us witnessing in our hometown and then pursuing worldwide missions. Let us see what the Bible really says!

The fact of the matter is Jerusalem in the Bible means Jerusalem. Judaea means southern Israel. Samaria is northern Israel. These are literal places in the Middle East. They are not in North America, Europe, South America, Australia, et cetera. It is a very dishonest approach to Bible study to use Bible terms and attach new meanings to them or extra-biblical meanings to them. Denominations and cults are notorious for doing such things with God’s Word and we should not follow them in their error. We should not wrest or twist the Scriptures to make them support our belief or program. Again, denominations and cults are notorious for doing such things with God’s Word and we should not follow them in their error. We should use the Holy Bible to form our theological system; we should not force the Holy Bible to agree with our theological system.

Some may ask, “Was not Jerusalem the hometown of the apostles?” In Acts 1:11, the two angels asked those same apostles, “Ye men of Galilee, why stand ye gazing up into heaven?” The 11 apostles (Judas is dead) were from up north, from Galilee, not from southern Israel (the setting of Jerusalem). The only apostle who was from southern Israel was Judas Iscariot, and he had killed himself weeks earlier (Matthew 27:3-10; Acts 1:16-20). “Iscariot” means “man of Kerioth,” Kerioth being in southern Judaea (Joshua 15:25).

To say that “Jerusalem” really means something else (that is, our hometown), reminds me of the never-ending effort of the Roman Catholic Church to say that Saint Peter was indeed in Rome. Without Peter ever being in Rome, he could have never been “Bishop of Rome,” and the “Petrine” papacy would be utterly destroyed. They thus grab any verse in the Bible and twist it to make it fit their system. How so? When Peter mentioned “the church that is at Babylon” (1 Peter 5:13), Roman Catholic apologists go to great lengths to say that “Babylon” is “code-name” for “Rome.” If that be the case, then who is to say that “Peter” is not a codename for someone else other than Simon Peter? (After all, some “scholars” deny the Apostle Peter wrote either epistle commonly attributed to him!) How do we know it was the Apostle Peter who wrote that letter from codename “Babylon/Rome?” It could have been any Christian… and then 1 Peter 5:13 would utterly useless to prove Peter was in Rome. Using the scholars’ logic, Peter may have not been that individual who wrote the letter. Who is to say that “the whore of Babylon” (Revelation chapters 17 and 18) is not “codename” for “the whore of Rome?” (No Roman Catholic apologist has yet to claim that “Babylon” is Rome!)

See, dear friends, we get sillier and sillier when we “spiritualize” passages, when we say Bible terms mean something else than what their literal reading would have us believe. How do we determine anything sensible in the Bible if we are always looking for “codenames,” “symbolic names,” and so on? We need to leave the King James Bible text alone and just believe it.

Certainly, we should preach the Gospel of the Grace of God to every person we can, whether in our community or around the world. This is made abundantly clear in 2 Corinthians 5:14-21. However, as dispensational Bible study makes so very clear, Acts 1:8 has nothing to do with us!

Also see:
» Are all Christians “ambassadors,” or just Paul and his ministry companions?
» Was Judas forgiven?
» Why does the Bible give two accounts of Judas’s death?

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, Did Mary Jesus’ mother have a sister also named Mary?

Did Mary, Jesus’ mother, have a sister also named Mary?

DID MARY, JESUS’ MOTHER, HAVE A SISTER ALSO NAMED MARY?

by Shawn Brasseaux

“Is John 19:25 saying that Jesus’ mother Mary had a sister named Mary? I thought perhaps Mary’s sisters’ name wasn’t mentioned here, being the second person in this listing of 4 women, 3 of whom were named ‘Mary.’ ‘Now there stood by the cross of Jesus his mother, and his mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene’ (John 19:25).”

So, basically, we can summarize your question as: (1) Are there four women—three named “Mary” and one unnamed? Or, (2) Are there only three women all of whom are named “Mary?”

If you look at the wording, it appears to be three women who are all named, rather than four women with only three named. Notice the verse does not say “Jesus his mother, and his mother’s sister, and Mary the wife of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene.”

The correct wording is: “Now there stood by the cross of Jesus his mother, AND his mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Cleophas, AND Mary Magdalene.” There are only two “and’s” not three, which leads me to conclude there are only three women in this verse: three “ands” would have indicated four women.

Yes, it seems awkward for Mary to have a sister named Mary—imagine how confusing that was!—but perhaps they were half-sisters?

SUPPLEMENTAL: SURROUNDED BY SINNERS

“Now there stood by the cross of Jesus his mother, and his mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene” (John 19:25).

This verse seems insignificant, but it conveys a marvelous Bible truth.

You should have noticed that there are three Marys listed in this verse. Although not explicitly named here, we find in other Scriptures that Jesus’ mother’s name is “Mary” (Matthew 1:16; Luke 2:6-21; et cetera). So, in John 19:25, we have: (1) Jesus’ mother named Mary, (2) the wife of Cleophas named Mary, and (3) Mary Magdalene. There were thousands of people who stood by Jesus’ cross, so why did the Holy Spirit select these three people to list, all of whom are named Mary?

“Mariam” is the Greek form of the Hebrew name “Miriam,” from which we get “Mary.” The New Testament was written in Koine Greek, so these Jewesses’ Hebrew names were rendered in Greek, and then that Greek name “Mariam” was translated into “Mary” in our English Bible. Now, think about it: Who was Miriam in Scripture?

The Bible says that Miriam was the sister of Aaron and Moses (Numbers 26:59; 1 Chronicles 6:3). Miriam rebelled against Moses’ leadership in Numbers 12:1-16, and God judged her with leprosy (a skin disease) because of it. Interestingly, the Hebrew name “Miriam” means “rebelliously.” Now, we can begin to think of John 19:25 in light of this information.

Of the thousands of people standing near Mount Calvary during Jesus Christ’s crucifixion, God the Holy Spirit selected three women who stood by, and He names them in His Word. It is no coincidence that the three women who are named are named Mary (John 19:25; cf. Matthew 27:55,56; Mark 15:40,41; Luke 23:49). What could God be teaching us through that?

Jesus Christ is hanging on Calvary’s cruel cross, dying for the sins of the people who hated Him. He was surrounded by Marys… He was surrounded by rebels… He was surrounded by sinners! In His own words, “They that are whole have no need of the physician, but they that are sick: I came not to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance” (Mark 2:17). Amazing! The three people named Mary in the verse was God’s way of emphasizing how there were many “rebels”/sinners surrounding Jesus’ cross.

Also see:
» What is the “Immaculate Conception?”
» Why was Saul of Tarsus’ name changed to Paul?
» Was Jesus Christ really crucified on Friday?

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, Why did Jesus weep when Lazarus died?

Why did Jesus weep when Lazarus died?

WHY DID JESUS WEEP WHEN LAZARUS DIED?

by Shawn Brasseaux

“Why did Jesus weep when Lazarus died, since He knew that He would raise Lazarus from the dead?”

What a question! I can think of three reasons why Jesus wept.

1. JESUS WEPT BECAUSE HE WAS HUMAN LIKE US.

Jesus Christ is the most unique Person in all the universe because He is fully God and fully Man. He is not 50 percent God and 50 percent Man, but 100 percent God and 100 percent Man. Because He is God, He has the power to take upon Himself a human nature. That is exactly what He did at His incarnation in Mary’s womb. Hence, Jesus would eat, sleep, exercise emotions, et cetera. While weeping is normally considered feminine (not masculine), Jesus Christ Himself corrected such an invalid view. Yes, He knew He would raise Lazarus, but until He raised Lazarus, as a Man, Jesus wept. It was not weakness; it was just an exercise of the seat of emotions that He had gained when He became Man.

2. JESUS WEPT BECAUSE HE SAW MARY AND THE OTHERS WEEPING.

We read in John chapter 11: “[31] The Jews then which were with her in the house, and comforted her, when they saw Mary, that she rose up hastily and went out, followed her, saying, She goeth unto the grave to weep there. [32] Then when Mary was come where Jesus was, and saw him, she fell down at his feet, saying unto him, Lord, if thou hadst been here, my brother had not died. [33] When Jesus therefore saw her weeping, and the Jews also weeping which came with her, he groaned in the spirit, and was troubled. [34] And said, Where have ye laid him? They said unto him, Lord, come and see.”

When Jesus saw Lazarus’ sister Mary weeping, and when Jesus saw the crowd of Jews weeping with her, He was deeply moved in His innermost being. Thus, He was influenced to weep with them. He knew their pain, He too loved Lazarus, and He showed them that He felt that pain. The Lord Jesus Christ was not a callous, apathetic Man who found enjoyment in the suffering of others. He was a compassionate Man! He was a dear, personal Friend.

3. JESUS WEPT BECAUSE THE AUDIENCE NEEDED TO KNOW THAT HE LOVED LAZARUS.

Verse 35, the Bible’s shortest verse, says, “Jesus wept.” By weeping, Jesus showed how much He loved Lazarus. Verse 36, “Then said the Jews, Behold how he loved him!” Had Jesus just stood emotionless at the tomb, He would have given the impression that He was glad or unconcerned (apathetic) about Lazarus’s decease. What would you think of someone who stood by a loved one’s tomb, someone who exhibited no melancholy emotions? This person had been friends with the deceased, and yet he or she would show no sense of sadness? It would be awkward. Jesus did not want to come off as rude or uncaring; He was a personal God who needed to show personal affection!

CONCLUSION

Jesus was fully God and fully Man. He was undiminished Deity and perfect Man. He was just as human as we are (He slept, ate, felt emotions, et cetera), but without sin. That is why He cried. Yes, He knew He would raise Lazarus again, but He felt the sting of death anyway. He identified Himself with those who were also mourning for Lazarus. The Lord Jesus Christ was a compassionate Person. He had (and still has) pity on us humans, we who are suffering under the effects of the curse of sin (sickness and physical death).

Martha confessed that Lazarus would rise again at the last day, and yet surely she mourned: “[23] Jesus saith unto her, Thy brother shall rise again. [24] Martha saith unto him, I know that he shall rise again in the resurrection at the last day.” The Jews came to comfort Mary and Martha, indicating they were both mourning (verse 19). Although we know the Lord will one day resurrect our deceased loved ones in Christ, we still stand by their graves and cry, do we not? Likewise, Jesus knowing the future still felt the grief of Lazarus’ temporary departure.

Also see:
» Is Jesus Christ JEHOVAH God? (COMING SOON!)
» Does the Bible teach the concept of the Trinity/Godhead?
» What happened to those saints raised from the dead in Matthew 27:52-53?

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, What does “kicking against the pricks” mean?

What does “kicking against the pricks” mean?

WHAT DOES “KICKING AGAINST THE PRICKS” MEAN?

by Shawn Brasseaux

“And he said, Who art thou, Lord? And the Lord said, I am Jesus whom thou persecutest: it is hard for thee to kick against the pricks” (Acts 9:5). What did the Lord Jesus mean here when He said Saul of Tarsus was “kicking against the pricks?”

The King James Bible uses the term “pricks” thrice—Acts 9:5; its parallel verse, Acts 26:14; and Numbers 33:55. “Pricks” is defined in the last reference. God instructed Moses to advise Israel when she would enter into her Promised Land: “But if ye will not drive out the inhabitants of the land from before you; then it shall come to pass, that those which ye let remain of them shall be pricks in your eyes, and thorns in your sides, and shall vex you in the land wherein ye dwell” (Numbers 33:55). Notice that “pricks” and “thorns” are associated with one another (cf. Ezekiel 28:24). They are very similar. In fact, our King James translators rendered the Greek word for “pricks” (Acts 9:5; Acts 26:14) as “sting” in 1 Corinthians 15:55-56 and “stings” in Revelation 9:10.

Prior to Paul’s salvation, God had been forming the nation Israel (often likened unto a flock of sheep). God had also sent His Son, Israel’s Messiah-King, Jesus, as the “good shepherd” (John 10:11), to lead wayward Israel back to Him. Jesus declared, “I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel” (Matthew 15:24; cf. Matthew 10:6; Luke 15:1-10). Saul of Tarsus was one of those lost Jews, bitterly opposed to Jesus Christ: “I verily thought with myself, that I ought to do many things contrary to the name of Jesus of Nazareth” (Acts 26:9). He imprisoned and murdered Jewish Messianic believers, men and women (Acts 26:10-11; cf. Acts 7:58–8:4; Acts 22:3-5; 1 Corinthians 15:9; Galatians 1:13-14,23; 1 Timothy 1:13).

God described Saul’s activities as “kicking against the pricks.” “Pricks” (or, goads) resemble thorns; they are pointed objects used to prod and drive rebellious livestock or other animal herds. Essentially, Jesus Christ referred to Saul as a disobedient sheep, sinfully opposing God’s will for Israel (Saul rejected Christ, and was killing those who accepted and trusted Him). Saul was a mighty instrument that Satan used to keep Israel from becoming the nation God had intended her to become. She was to be “a kingdom of priests” (Exodus 19:3-6) and yet she could not become it because she refused to accept her King, Jesus!

On the road outside of Damascus in Acts chapter 9, Saul of Tarsus learned his fighting against the Creator God was futile, for he was unsuccessful in annihilating believing Israel. In fact, hell-bound Saul eventually quit striving against God. He trusted Christ, and ultimately became the Apostle Paul, God’s apostle to us Gentiles!

Also see:
» Do Acts 9:7 and Acts 22:9 contradict one another?
» Have I blasphemed against the Holy Ghost?
» Who was Judas’ replacement—Matthias or Paul?