Category Archives: BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED

Was the Holy Spirit really given in John 20:22?

WAS THE HOLY SPIRIT REALLY GIVEN IN JOHN 20:22?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Did God the Father really pour out His Spirit on Israel’s little flock in John 20:22? Or, did He pour out His Spirit in Acts chapter 2? While it is often a conundrum to theologians and Bible readers, we trust that the Word of God will speak for itself and interpret itself, thereby eliminating any confusion we have. Secular education and denominational doctrine can cloud even the simplest passage, but we can avoid such perplexity by simply leaving the Bible text alone and just believing it!

In His post-resurrection commission of John’s Gospel (chapter 20): “[21] Then said Jesus to them again, Peace be unto you: as my Father hath sent me, even so send I you. [22] And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost: [23] Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained.” (By the way, this is a favorite Bible passage of the Roman Catholic Church. It is needed to bolster the “Sacrament of Reconciliation,” the dogma that assumes priests have been granted God’s permission to hear confessions of sins and have been given God’s power to grant the sinners absolution!)

The Berean Bible student knows that Father God poured out the Holy Ghost on Israel’s believing remnant in Acts chapter 2, the day of Pentecost. We know that the Holy Ghost was not actually given in John 20:21-23 because of what the Lord Jesus Himself said in John 7:39: “(But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified).” When was Jesus Christ glorified? Was it in John 20:21-23? Certainly not. According to the Bible, the Holy Spirit was given only after Jesus was glorified in Heaven at the Father’s right hand.

Notice what the Apostle Peter preached to Israel on the day of Pentecost. Acts chapter 2: “[32] This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses. [33] Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Ghost, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear. [34] For David is not ascended into the heavens: but he saith himself [Psalm 110:1], The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, [35] Until I make thy foes thy footstool. [36] Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made the same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.”

So, why did Jesus say in John 20:22-23, “Receive ye the Holy Ghost: Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained.”? He was explaining to these disciples how He would equip them to fulfill that commission in His absence. They were failing men, sinful men, and yet they were commanded to preach God’s Word and do God’s work. How would they ever remit and retain sins as Jesus said in John chapter 20? How would they ever be able to perform all those miracles of Mark chapter 16? How would they preach to and teach all nations everything that Jesus taught them for three years, as instructed in Matthew chapter 28? How would they ever manage to preach repentance to Jerusalem first and then to all the world as commanded in Luke chapter 24 and Acts chapter 1? It would be by the power of the Holy Spirit, the Person who would come on them in Acts chapter 2!

Remember, Jews from every nation under heaven had gathered in Jerusalem in Acts chapter 2 to celebrate the feast of Pentecost. In order to evangelize these lost Jews, the apostles had to preach in human languages they had never formally learned. This problem was solved by the gift of tongues brought on by the Holy Ghost (Acts 2:1-11). The Holy Ghost also brought Jesus’ teachings to the apostles’ memories. After all, Jesus had told them: “But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance whatsoever I have said unto you” (John 14:26; cf. John 14:16-18, John 15:26,27, and John 16:7). Furthermore, the Holy Ghost empowered the apostles to perform miracles, signs, and wonders (Luke 24:49; Mark 16:17-20).

CONCLUSION

No, the Holy Spirit was not actually given in John 20:22. Jesus Christ had not yet been glorified in the third heaven (John 7:39; Acts 2:33). John chapter 20 was simply a preview of the power that Israel’s apostles would have when the Holy Spirit would come several days later in Acts chapter 2. The Holy Ghost would enable them to continue doing the work that Jesus Christ had begun in His earthly ministry. Jesus spoke those words about the Holy Ghost in John 20:22 in order to show His apostles how He would equip them to do what He wanted them to do in verse 23. He wanted them to be His representatives on Earth while He was away in heaven, and the Holy Spirit would empower them to do it.

An interesting side-note…. The Bible says, “[Jesus] breathed on them, and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost” (John 20:22). Breathing in the Bible is the idea of speaking forth words. The Greek word translated “Ghost” (or “Spirit”) is pneuma, which is also rendered, “air” or “breath,” in other places. It would be by the power of the Holy Ghost that Israel’s apostles and little flock would speak forth God’s Word. Throughout the Bible, the Holy Spirit is associated with the communication of God’s Word (for example, 1 Peter 1:10-11 and 2 Peter 1:21). Jesus “breathed on them” is literally associated with the Holy Ghost.

Also see:
» Is the Holy Spirit a Person or a force?
» Have I blasphemed against the Holy Ghost?
» What does it mean to be “filled with the Holy Ghost?” (COMING SOON!)

Could you explain, “I will give you the sure mercies of David?”

COULD YOU EXPLAIN, “I WILL GIVE YOU THE SURE MERCIES OF DAVID?”

by Shawn Brasseaux

“I have a Bible question. Acts 13:33-35: ‘God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee. And as concerning that he raised him up from the dead, now no more to return to corruption, he said on this wise, I will give you the sure mercies of David. Wherefore he saith also in another psalm, Thou shalt not suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.’ In verse 34, where it says ‘he said on this wise, I will give you the sure mercies of David.’ Is this God saying He will give Jesus Christ ‘the sure mercies of David?’ Or, is Paul going way out of context all of a sudden and speaking about ‘believers’ getting ‘the sure mercies of David?’ I know Isaiah 55 is being quoted, just wanted to see what you thought of this, and perhaps you could shed some light on this for me. Thanks.”

You are welcome, and thank you for that question! Let us see if we can find other verses that shed light on Acts 13:34.

By the way, this verse is a case in point why it is important to use a King James Bible instead of a modern English version. Older English differentiates between second-person singular (thee, thou, thine, thy) and second-person plural (ye, you, your). Since this is also true of the original Bible languages, Hebrew and Greek, older English (and thus, the King James Bible) instead of modern English conveys the sense that God intended. In other words, had we used an “easy-to-read” Bible written in “contemporary English,” it would have been much more difficult to answer your question.

Even the New King James Version, which boasts that it retains the “thought flow” of the King James Bible while eliminating its “archaic, hard-to-read language,” eliminates the very “cumbersome” words that help the reader! As the King James translators knew, we need “thee,” “thou,” “thine,” “thy,” “ye,” “you,” and “your” to understand the original sense of the Bible text. The first four pronouns (thee, thou, thine, thy) were not common English in 1611, but these Authorized Version scholars used those words because they knew that they precisely matched the Hebrew and Greek they were translating.

When using the King James Bible, always remember that the pronouns that begin with “th-” (thee, thou, thine, thy) are a reference to one person and the pronouns that begin with “y-” (ye, you, your) are a reference to two or more persons. For example, Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven” (Matthew 6:10b) is saying Father God’s will be done—the will of one Person be done. To make the Bible say, “Your will be done…” is actually to leave room for polytheism (the belief in many gods!). Or, another famous verse, John 3:7, “Marvel not that I said unto thee [one man, Nicodemus], Ye [a group, all of Israel] must be born again.” If we make read, “I say to you, you must be born again,” you could not discern if this applied to Nicodemus alone or to a whole group.

Publishers of the modern English versions boast that they have replaced “thee, thou, thine, thy” with “you, your, yours” and thus made the Bible easier to read. No, they made it impossible for the English Bible reader to determine what the original Bible languages said (thus necessitating footnotes in the modern versions that differentiate between Hebrew/Greek second-person singular/plural pronouns)! Whenever you hear someone say that the modern versions read “closer to the originals” than our King James Bible, they are repeating something that is untrue concerning the second-personal pronouns! Using “you, your, yours” throughout is not a precise handling of the Hebrew and Greek second-person singular pronouns!

With the background laid, we can return to Acts 13:34: “I will give you the sure mercies of David” has an audience known as “you.” Considering our previous comments, is “you” singular or plural? This word “you” is indicative of a group of people, not an individual. Had God the Father spoken this to Jesus Christ, one Person, it would have read, “I will give thee the sure mercies of David.” Because our Authorized Version uses “you” in Acts 13:34 (and Isaiah 55:3), the Holy Spirit is showing us that He is speaking to a group. By the way, you cannot see this distinction in modern “bible” because it uses “you” for one person and for two or more.

As you pointed out, the Apostle Paul quoted Isaiah 55:3 in Acts 13:34. When Isaiah says, “I will give you the sure mercies of David,” He is quoting JEHOVAH God Who had promised Israel (a group) a future resurrection. They are “sure,” certain/reliable, and they are “mercies,” God’s gestures of kindness toward unworthy Israel. We know Isaiah 55:3 is discussing resurrection because Paul interprets it for us in Acts chapter 13 (the verse you are asking about).

Acts 13:33-37 explains Isaiah 55:3 for us: “[33] God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee. [34] And as concerning that he raised him up from the dead, now no more to return to corruption, he said on this wise, I will give you the sure mercies of David. [35] Wherefore he saith also in another psalm, Thou shalt not suffer thine Holy One to see corruption. [36] For David after he had served his own generation by the will of God, fell on sleep, and was laid unto his fathers, and saw corruption: [37] But he, whom God raised again, saw no corruption.”

To answer your question, the context of Acts 13:33-37 is Jesus’ resurrection. Paul is not using Isaiah 55:3 in its original sense (the resurrection of Jewish believers); the Apostle is saying that Jesus’ resurrection paralleled, not fulfilled, Isaiah 55:3. There is a similarity between Jesus’ resurrection and Isaiah 55:3, but not a fulfillment. Jesus’ resurrection fulfilled other verses (Paul quoted Psalm 16:10 and Psalm 2:7 as direct fulfillments). Note Psalm 2:7 said, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee(the older English second-person pronouns affirm that this is spoken to one Person, Jesus Christ).

As an interesting side-note, where does David fit in all of this? Why did Isaiah write “the sure mercies of David?” What is so special about David in this respect? As we saw above, Acts 13:35 quotes Psalm 16. Psalm 16 is a portion of Scripture that David wrote, about 300 years before Isaiah. In this psalm, David wrote about his bodily resurrection, as well as Messiah’s bodily resurrection centuries later (cf. Acts 2:25-28).

The Holy Spirit moved David to write in Psalm 16:8-11: “[8] I have set the Lord always before me: because he is at my right hand, I shall not be moved. [9] Therefore my heart is glad, and my glory rejoiceth: my flesh also shall rest in hope. [10] For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption. [11] Thou wilt shew me the path of life: in thy presence is fulness of joy; at thy right hand there are pleasures for evermore.” (Note the second-personal plural pronouns here: “Thou,” “thy,” and “thine” are all references to Father God, one Person.)

According to prophecy (cf. Psalm 2:6-9), Jesus Christ would be raised again (or resurrected) “to sit on David’s throne.” The Apostle Peter, quoting Psalm 16, preached in Acts 2:30-32: “[30] Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne; [31] He [David] seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell, neither his flesh did see corruption. [32] This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses.” (See the larger context, Acts 2:22-32, for a fuller treatment.)

Jesus’ resurrection would bring to pass Israel becoming a kingdom of priests (Jesus being the King over Israel). Jews would be raised spiritually (regenerated by God’s Spirit) and resurrected physically in order to be priests in that Millennial Kingdom. The context of Isaiah chapter 55 is Israel’s spiritual resurrection, given new life spiritually (redeemed, or saved/delivered, from their sins). The Bible says in Isaiah 55:3: “Incline your ear, and come unto me: hear, and your soul shall live; and I will make an everlasting covenant with you, even the sure mercies of David.” The “everlasting covenant” God will make with believing Israel is that He will raise them from the dead physically, going all the way back to David and even to Father Abraham (re-read Psalm 16:8-11). That spiritual and physical resurrection will enable Israel’s believing remnant to be pure enough to enter the Millennium and serve JEHOVAH God in His earthly kingdom (Revelation 20:1-6)!

CONCLUSION

Isaiah 55:3 is God’s promise to one day spiritually resurrect Israel (her believing remnant). That verse did not apply to Jesus Christ. Still, Paul quoted it and said that Jesus Christ’s resurrection was similar. Unbelieving Jews had great difficulty believing in Jesus’ Messiahship and resurrection (cf. Romans 10:1,9), so it was necessary for Paul to establish that fact using Israel’s “Old Testament” scrolls (hence, he quoted Psalm 2:7, Psalm 16:10, and Isaiah 55:3). Paul validated his message there in the synagogue of Antioch of Pisidia, by appealing to the writings of the holy prophets of old. The Holy Spirit through Paul wanted these lost Jews to see that Father God had promised to resurrect His Son one day. Since Jesus was resurrected, He was the fulfillment of the Old Testament Messianic prophecies, and thus He was God’s Son (Christ/Messiah).

Paul did not say Jesus Christ fulfilled Isaiah 55:3 at His resurrection; Jesus’ resurrection was similar to the resurrection of Isaiah 55:3, but not a fulfillment of it. There are many places where the New Testament quotes the Old Testament, not as fulfillments, but as parallels in thought or similarities to reinforce themes. This is the case of Acts 13:34 quoting Isaiah 55:3.

Also see:
» Which Bible version should I use?
» What happened to those saints raised from the dead in Matthew 27:52-53?
» When will the Old Testament saints be resurrected?

How can the Bible say, “No man hath seen God at any time?”

HOW CAN THE BIBLE SAY, “NO MAN HATH SEEN GOD AT ANY TIME?”

by Shawn Brasseaux

Years ago, a long-time critic and Bible-rejecter replied to one of our Bible studies, emailing the following argument to me: “John 1:18 says, ‘No man has seen God at any time;….’ Jesus was seen of men and the Bible says no one has ever seen God. Therefore, Jesus could not have been God.” While I never did reply to him (it was one of his many “foolish and unlearned questions,” and those are always to be ignored; 2 Timothy 2:23), how should we reply? For those of us who sincerely want to know God’s truth, who do not ask captious questions just to challenge God’s Word, but who ask questions solely for the sake of better understanding God’s precious Word, how should we view John 1:18?

We will first survey the “Old Testament” Scriptures to learn the following:

  • Genesis 17:1 says, “And when Abram was ninety years old and nine, the LORD appeared to Abram, and said unto him, I am the Almighty God; walk before me, and be thou perfect.”
  • Genesis 32:30 says, “And Jacob called the name of the place Peniel: for I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved.” (“Peniel” is Hebrew for “the face of God.”)
  • Genesis 35:9 says, “And God appeared unto Jacob again, when he came out of Padanaram, and blessed him.”
  • 1 Samuel 3:21 says, “And the LORD appeared again in Shiloh: for the LORD revealed himself to Samuel in Shiloh by the word of the LORD.”
  • 1 Kings 3:5 says, “In Gibeon the LORD appeared to Solomon in a dream by night: and God said, Ask what I shall give thee.”
  • 1 Kings 9:2 says, “That the LORD appeared to Solomon the second time, as he had appeared unto him at Gibeon.”
  • 2 Chronicles 3:1 says, “Then Solomon began to build the house of the LORD at Jerusalem in mount Moriah, where the Lord appeared unto David his father, in the place that David had prepared in the threshingfloor of Ornan the Jebusite.”

There are other examples, but for space’s sake, we will only list their references (you may look at them in your Bible). Try Genesis 18:1, Genesis 26:2, and 1 Kings 11:9. As these verses demonstrate, people did indeed see “God” (or “the LORD”) in the Old Testament economy. He literally appeared to them and they saw Him face-to-face as we would see another person in front of us. So, how could the Apostle John write, “No man hath seen God at any time?” Is the Bible mistaken? No, actually, we need a sound definition of the name “God” (the scoffers have no such working definition because they do not adequately study the Book they malign and contradict).

Most of the time, when God the Son is implied, the Bible employs terms such as, “the Lord Jesus Christ,” “Jesus,” “Jesus Christ,” “the Lord Jesus,” “the Lord,” “Christ,” “Christ Jesus,” et cetera. The syntax of John 1:18 defines “God” for us: “No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.” In this verse, “Son” is obviously God the Son, Jesus Christ. There is someone else mentioned in the verse, and the Person is “God.” Who would this Person be? The only logical answer is that this would be indicative of God the Father. Not always, but usually, in the “New Testament” Scriptures, the name “God” implies God the Father. What John 1:18 is really communicating is that no one has seen God the Father. So, who were people—Abraham, Jacob, Samuel, David, Solomon, et cetera—seeing in the Old Testament when “God” or “the LORD” appeared to them? They would have seen God the Son, Jesus Christ, in a “theophany,” a pre-incarnate appearance!

While no one can see God the Father (He is a Spirit being), they can see Jesus Christ His Son. Jesus Christ is such a perfect reflection of Father God in all of His glory and wisdom and holiness, to look upon Jesus Christ is as if you were looking at Father God Himself. They are that closely connected with one another! Hence, Jesus Christ is the only way to Father God, the one mediator between God and men (1 Timothy 2:5). Whatever Jesus Christ was doing, to watch Him execute that work was to watch Father God working in and through Him to carry out that work!

John 14:6-8 explains: “[6] Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me. [7] If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him. [8] Philip saith unto him, Lord, shew us the Father, and it sufficeth us. [8] Philip saith unto him, Lord, shew us the Father, and it sufficeth us. [9] Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father? [10] Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.”

Hebrews 1:3 says that Jesus Christ is, “…the brightness of [Father God’s] glory, and the express image of his person.” Colossians 2:9 says, “For in [Jesus Christ] dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.” And 2 Corinthians 4:6, “Christ, who is the image of God.” (As noted earlier, please observe how “God” in that last verse is indicative of the Father.)

Back to John 1:18: “No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.” Jesus Christ and His Heavenly Father are so intertwined, so united in love (John 17:24), Jesus Christ is spoken of as being “in the bosom of the Father.” Jesus Christ is the very dearest of all Father God knows! God the Father’s relationship with Jesus Christ is the greatest of all relationships. The exciting reality is that, in Jesus Christ, we Christians are just as precious to Father God as Jesus is! “To the praise of the glory of his grace; wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved” (Ephesians 1:6). Colossians 1:13 calls Jesus Christ “his dear Son”—Jesus is ever so beloved of Father God and in Christ we are ever so beloved of Father God, too!

Since God the Father and God the Son are so closely related, Father God declares Himself to us through Jesus Christ. Jesus Christ, by His actions and His words, makes the invisible Father God known to mankind. Again, Jesus Christ is the Mediator between God the Father and men (1 Timothy 2:5). To better understand the relationship between Jesus Christ and His Heavenly Father, we need to look no further than His prayer to His Father just prior to His betrayal, arrest, and death on Calvary’s cruel cross (please note especially the bolded statements). Note the words of John chapter 17:

“[1] These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee: [2] As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him. [3] And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent. [4] I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest me to do.”

“[5] And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was. [6] I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word. [7] Now they have known that all things whatsoever thou hast given me are of thee. [8] For I have given unto them the words which thou gavest me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came out from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me. [9] I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine. [10] And all mine are thine, and thine are mine; and I am glorified in them.”

“[11] And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we are. [12] While I was with them in the world, I kept them in thy name: those that thou gavest me I have kept, and none of them is lost, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled.”

“[13] And now come I to thee; and these things I speak in the world, that they might have my joy fulfilled in themselves. [14] I have given them thy word; and the world hath hated them, because they are not of the world, even as I am not of the world. [15] I pray not that thou shouldest take them out of the world, but that thou shouldest keep them from the evil. [16] They are not of the world, even as I am not of the world. [17] Sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth. [18] As thou hast sent me into the world, even so have I also sent them into the world. [19] And for their sakes I sanctify myself, that they also might be sanctified through the truth. [20] Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word; [21] That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me. [22] And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one: [23] I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me.”

“[24] Father, I will that they also, whom thou hast given me, be with me where I am; that they may behold my glory, which thou hast given me: for thou lovedst me before the foundation of the world. [25] O righteous Father, the world hath not known thee: but I have known thee, and these have known that thou hast sent me. [26] And I have declared unto them thy name, and will declare it: that the love wherewith thou hast loved me may be in them, and I in them.”

A LITTLE MORE CLARITY

To even better understand John 1:18, let us consider the following. John’s Gospel is meant to testify that Jesus is Christ, the Son of God. At its heart, the book highlights eight “signs” (miracles communicating doctrine) that Jesus performed to prove that He was Israel’s Messiah/Christ/God’s Son. We read in chapter 20, verses 30-31: “[30] And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book: [31] But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.” These miracles “sign-ified” that Jesus Christ could give those Jews who received Him, “power to become the sons of God” (John 1:12). They would be equipped to do what He was doing for Father God’s glory! In other words, it would be His power to work in them and have them resemble His Father in their heart and actions, too, just as He was thinking and doing!

SUPPLEMENTAL: A BRIEF WORD ABOUT TEXTUAL CRITICISM AND JOHN 1:18

Beloved, a study about John 1:18 without discussing manuscript evidence would be an incomplete study. So, we will dedicate a special section to briefly examining the controversy surrounding the reading of John 1:18.

John 1:18 is a major reason why the Bible versions issue is so important. We will read it again as it appears in our King James Bible: “No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.” The majority of Greek New Testament manuscripts read, “monogenes huios” (“the only begotten Son”)—the King James Bible and its Greek Textus Receptus has the correct reading. The Greek New Testament used by the translators of the modern English versions, commonly called the “Nestle-Aland Greek” or “Critical Text,” has the phrase, “monogenes theos” (translated as “the only begotten God” in the New American Standard Bible).

In church history, there was (and still is) a heretical doctrine known as “Arianism.” It is the belief that the Bible’s view of the Trinity is wrong, that Jesus Christ is a created being, and that Jesus Christ is not equal to God the Father. To say that Jesus is a “begotten God” not only eliminates the reference to Jesus being “the Son” (thus removing a reference to the Trinity—remember our God/Father/Son syntactical comments from earlier?), it also borderlines the idea that God had an origin, that Jesus was a created god or created being. This is the Jehovah’s Witness’ view and the Mormons’ view of Jesus Christ. Jesus Christ is most definitely God, but He is not a “begotten God.” To say that Jesus Christ is a “begotten God” is heresy; the NASB is a heretical modern English version. Jesus Christ is God’s “begotten Son,for Father God raised His Son, not His “God,” from the dead (see Acts 13:33-34).

CONCLUSION

“No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him” (John 1:18). This verse does not deny Jesus is God. In fact, for John 1:18 to say that “God” (indicative of the Father) was not seen in the Old Testament, and yet the Old Testament says people did see God, means that there are at least two Persons called “God” in the Bible. In other words, Jesus Christ is the “LORD” (all caps, JEHOVAH) of the Old Testament! While John 1:18 is seen as a refutation of Jesus’ deity, upon close study, that verse strengthens the claim that Jesus was and is just as much God as God the Father. Jesus is JEHOVAH, dear friends, so now we see why the Devil corrupted John 1:18 and keeps people confused about its proper reading!

John 1:18 simply means that whenever “God” appeared to people in the Old Testament economy, it was God the Son, Jesus Christ before His incarnation (before He took on Himself human flesh and became the God-Man). John 1:18 is saying that no mortal human has seen God the Father. That phrase “whom no man hath seen, nor can see” of 1 Timothy 6:16 does not refer to Jesus Christ, as sometimes assumed, but rather applicable to “God” (the Father) of verse 13. Only Jesus Christ His Son has seen and had a personal relationship with Him. Thus, it is through Jesus Christ alone that we can have fellowship with Father God. Hence, the Bible says that those who saw Jesus Christ in His flesh saw His Father—Jesus Christ is the perfect reflection of His Heavenly Father, “the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person” (Hebrews 1:3), “the image of God” (2 Corinthians 4:4). It is through His Son Jesus Christ that Father God has made Himself known (see Hebrews 1:1-2).

Also see:
» Is the Godhead/Trinity a Biblical concept?
» Which Bible version should I use?
» Can Jews who believe in God, the Father, but who reject Jesus, be saved from eternal damnation?

What happened to those saints raised from the dead in Matthew 27:52-53?

WHAT HAPPENED TO THOSE SAINTS RAISED FROM THE DEAD IN MATTHEW 27:52-53?

by Shawn Brasseaux

“When the graves were opened and the dead saints came forth and walked among people in Jerusalem, what happened to these people later on after Christ went up in a cloud? Where did they go and were they flesh and bone or flesh and blood? If they were flesh and bone then how could they be able to die again later on if that be the case? Any answers for this?”

The passage to which you are referring is somewhat mysterious; I have wondered about it for some time as well. I am not sure we will ever have all the answers about it in this life, but the following Bible verses may shed light on this passage. It is a rather complex study, but our conclusion should make it clear.

For those unfamiliar with this topic, we will begin by introducing the passage. We read in Matthew chapter 27: “[50] Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost. [51] And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent; [52] And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose, [53] And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many.”

Firstly, it is important to remember not to misread these verses as some have. These saints raised from the dead were not raised from the dead when Jesus Christ died. They were raised again after Jesus Christ’s resurrection three days later. The earthquake at Jesus’ death opened these graves, but it was not until three days later that the people came forth from those graves.

While others in Bible history had been raised from the dead (the poor widow’s son—1 Kings 17:17-23; the man whose corpse revived after it was thrown on top of Elisha’s bones—2 Kings 13:21; the son of the widow of Nain—Luke 7:11-18; Lazarus—John 11:1-46; et cetera), Jesus Christ was the first to be resurrected, raised from the dead never to die again. Christ was the first man to be resurrected in history, never to die again. Paul wrote in 1 Corinthians 15:20-23, describing our own resurrection at the “Rapture:” “[20] But now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruits of them that slept. [21] For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead. [22] For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. [23] But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ’s at his coming.” In agrarian terminology, the “firstfruits” is that small part of the crop that ripens first, before the majority of the crop matures. With regards to resurrection, Jesus Christ is the first Person ever.

As far as we know, the poor widow’s son of 1 Kings chapter 17, the man who was raised again in Elisha’s tomb in 2 Kings chapter 13, the son of the widow of Nain of Luke chapter 7, and Lazarus of John chapter 11, they all were raised from the dead only to die again. They were not resurrected. We have no record in the Bible to say that they went to heaven in any resurrected body. They certainly do not exist on Earth today as millennia-old senior citizens! The only logical conclusion that I see is that these people died again. Now, with that said, let us return to your question. What about those raised again in Matthew chapter 27? Considering the similar events that happened prior in Bible history, I tend to believe that those saints died again too. While some say that (as I used to believe) those saints of Matthew chapter 27 ascended into heaven when Jesus did in Acts chapter 1, I have since reexamined my position on the subject and now I do not see any Scriptural proof of it. We will let Luke inform us as to what was seen at the ascension:

We read in Mark 16:19: “So then after the Lord had spoken unto them, he was received up into heaven, and sat on the right hand of God.” And Luke 24:50-51: “[50] And he led them out as far as to Bethany, and he lifted up his hands, and blessed them. [51] And it came to pass, while he blessed them, he was parted from them, and carried up into heaven.” And Acts chapter 1: “[9] And when he had spoken these things, while they beheld, he was taken up; and a cloud received him out of their sight. [10] And while they looked stedfastly toward heaven as he went up, behold, two men stood by them in white apparel; [11] Which also said, Ye men of Galilee, why stand ye gazing up into heaven? this same Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come in like manner as ye have seen him go into heaven.”

Remember what Matthew 27:52-53 said: “many bodies of the saints which slept arose, And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many.” These were not one or two people, but “many” believers who were raised from the dead right after Jesus was resurrected. They obviously had literal bodies that could be seen, for the Bible says many did see them. Yet, when the apostles and disciples watched Jesus ascend into heaven, they sawHe was taken up… a cloud received Him out of their sight… Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven.” Those saints raised again had bodies that could be seen; yet the apostles did not see them go up at Jesus’ ascension. They only saw Jesus go into heaven. That would be conclusive evidence for me that those raised again in Matthew chapter 27 did not go up into heaven when Jesus did, but rather they continued to live on Earth for some time after before dying again. The same would be true of Lazarus; he was not seen at the ascension either, so the assumption is that he lived and then died again.

A verse that helped me reckon it all in my mind is 1 Timothy 6:16: “[The Lord Jesus Christ] Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen.” This verse says that only one Person has physical “immortality” today. Jesus Christ left Earth in a physical body, and He is in that physical body today in Heaven. “Immortal” means “living forever; never dying or decaying.” Now, think about it. If those raised again in Matthew chapter 27, were caught up into heaven in resurrected bodies in Acts chapter 1 with Jesus, they too would be “immortal.” Like Jesus, they would have physical bodies never to die again. Yet, what does Paul say? Only Jesus Christ has “immortality,” only He has a body that will never die again. Could those saints of Matthew chapter 27, thus be in resurrected bodies in heaven today? No. The best explanation is that they died again after their coming back to life, and they are waiting for resurrected bodies like all the other saints of old. For this reason, I would say that the saints of Matthew chapter 27, had “flesh and blood bodies, for there is strong Scriptural evidence that they died again—“flesh and bonebodies are those that can enter God’s resurrection realm and His kingdom (cf. Luke 24:39; 1 Corinthians 15:50). They evidently, like us, are still awaiting flesh-and-bone bodies of the resurrection (never to die again).

WHAT ABOUT HEBREWS 9:27?

Some may say that to have the saints of Matthew chapter 27 live, die, raise again, and then live and die (to be resurrected beyond our day), is a contradiction of Hebrews 9:27: “And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment:” However, this verse is not an absolute. In Bible history, God has had some exceptions to this rule (but note that these exceptions involved believers only). It was not lost people dying and going to suffer in hell and then being removed and having a second chance for salvation into heaven; rather, the exceptions to the rule of Hebrews 9:27 always involved believers.

For example, Enoch never died physically and was caught up into heaven (Genesis 5:24; cf. Hebrews 11:5, which says, “By faith Enoch was translated that he should not see death…”). The Bible seems to suggest that Enoch will never die physically at all. The one death of Hebrews 9:27 would not apply to Enoch.

The Prophet Elijah never died physically but was caught up into heaven in 2 Kings 2:11. Moses died in Deuteronomy 34:5 and God Himself even buried him in verse 6! In the book of the Revelation (chapter 11), which is future from our day, God’s “two witnesses” before the Antichrist seem to be, based on their actions, Moses and Elijah. (I would say this based on Moses and Elijah being at the Mount of Transfiguration with Jesus, Matthew chapter 17:1-9, and because Malachi 4:5 says that Elijah will appear before Jesus Christ’s Second Coming to end those seven years of the Antichrist’s reign.) Verses 7-13 of Revelation chapter 11 say that the Antichrist will overcome and kill these two witnesses, and then God will raise them up and call them into heaven. If they are indeed Moses and Elijah, by that time, Moses will have died twice and been raised twice, and Elijah will have died once and been raised once!

As an additional side-note, those Christians alive at the time of the Rapture (Jesus’ coming for His Body) will be instantly transformed and caught up into heaven, having never experienced physical death (1 Thessalonians 4:17)—the one death of Hebrews 9:27 would not apply to those Christians either.

CONCLUSION

Exactly what happened to the saints who were raised again just after Jesus’ resurrection, the Bible does not say in the context. From studying other verses, I would say that they eventually died again, and that they are still waiting a permanent resurrection (to one day receive resurrected bodies that will never die again). Nothing in the Bible indicates that they ascended into heaven in those bodies that had been raised from the dead. That would make me conclude they were “flesh and blood” bodies. No one but Jesus Christ today has a body of “flesh and bone,” an immortal body, one that will never die again.

All the Scriptural record indicates conclusively is that these saints in Matthew chapter 27, after being raised from the dead, went into Jerusalem and appeared to people who could identify them. These saints raised from the dead were additional proof that Jesus’ resurrection was not merely a swooning, a fainting-spell, a coincidence, et cetera. Their testimony proved that it was the work of God. It was not just one raising from the dead that the unbelieving Jews could discount; it was many demonstrable, irrefutable instances of people rising from the dead!

While Matthew 27:52-53 is still a puzzling passage, at this time, as far as we can explain it using other Scriptures, those saints died again and are awaiting a permanent resurrection.

Also see:
» When will the Old Testament saints be resurrected?
» Are deceased Christians with the Lord yet?
» Who is the “great cloud of witnesses” of Hebrews 12:1?

Why does the Bible give two conflicting accounts of Judas’s death?

WHY DOES THE BIBLE GIVE TWO CONFLICTING ACCOUNTS OF JUDAS’S DEATH?

by Shawn Brasseaux

No, the Bible does not give two differing accounts of Judas’s death. What is commonly called a “mistake” is nothing than a misunderstanding. While this topic is morose and this study is somewhat graphic to some, it is worth addressing and the matter is worth settling.

The Bible critics say the following: “The Bible has mistakes. For instance, one passage says that Judas hanged himself, and another passage says that he fell and his guts burst out!” Bless their hearts, there is nothing illogical about the narrative those passages put forth. Is it not strange that Bible scoffers can speak the truth and, blinded by Satan (2 Corinthians 4:3-4), still miss it entirely? What they think is an error is actually truth in plain sight! For sake of argument, we will examine the verses to learn exactly what happened to Judas during his last moments alive on Earth.

First, Matthew chapter 27, verses 1-10: “[1] When the morning was come, all the chief priests and elders of the people took counsel against Jesus to put him to death: [2] And when they had bound him, they led him away, and delivered him to Pontius Pilate the governor. [3] Then Judas, which had betrayed him, when he saw that he was condemned, repented himself, and brought again the thirty pieces of silver to the chief priests and elders, [4] Saying, I have sinned in that I have betrayed the innocent blood. And they said, What is that to us? see thou to that. [5] And he cast down the pieces of silver in the temple, and departed, and went and hanged himself. [6] And the chief priests took the silver pieces, and said, It is not lawful for to put them into the treasury, because it is the price of blood. [7] And they took counsel, and bought with them the potter’s field, to bury strangers in. [8] Wherefore that field was called, The field of blood, unto this day. [9] Then was fulfilled that which was spoken by Jeremy the prophet, saying, And they took the thirty pieces of silver, the price of him that was valued, whom they of the children of Israel did value; [10] And gave them for the potter’s field, as the Lord appointed me.”

According to Matthew, after Jesus’ arrest and condemnation, Judas changed his mind. He returned to the Temple, to the chief priests and elders, to give them the 30 pieces of silver for which he had betrayed Jesus. They refused to take the money, deeming it “blood money.” Judas threw the coins on the ground, and the Bible says he went out and “hanged himself.”

About six weeks later, the Apostle Peter commented in Acts chapter 1: “[16] Men and brethren, this scripture must needs have been fulfilled, which the Holy Ghost by the mouth of David spake before concerning Judas, which was guide to them that took Jesus. [17] For he was numbered with us, and had obtained part of this ministry. [18] Now this man purchased a field with the reward of iniquity; and falling headlong, he burst asunder in the midst, and all his bowels gushed out. [19] And it was known unto all the dwellers at Jerusalem; insomuch as that field is called in their proper tongue, Aceldama, that is to say, The field of blood.”

Peter describes Judas, “falling headlong, he burst asunder in the midst, and all his bowels gushed out.” If we simply conflate Matthew’s account and Peter’s account, it makes perfect sense. Judas hanged himself and then died. Later, the noose broke and his body violently fell headfirst, spilling all of his guts on the ground. Surely, it was a most unpleasant sight. News of it spread quickly in Jerusalem. One of Jesus’ closest friends (and His most trusted apostle) had committed suicide.

But, why did the noose break? This requires some study (scoffing is easier). Remember, not many hours after Judas hung himself outside Jerusalem, Jesus Christ died on Calvary’s cross outside Jerusalem. They died in the same general area. Matthew 27:50-51 explains: “[50] Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost. [51] And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent;” This earthquake at Christ’s death is unique to Matthew’s gospel record. A seismic event rocked Jerusalem and the surrounding area, and the intense shaking likely caused Judas’ body to fall from its hanging position. Perhaps his body was so high up, or maybe the earthquake was so intense, something threw his body to the ground with such great force that all of his insides gushed out. Horrible!

CONCLUSION

There is no contradiction concerning Judas’ death. Judas died once, and then, after death, his corpse was mangled. Judas died by hanging and then his lifeless body fell from the noose (probably because of an earthquake). Yes, friends, a little extrapolation, a little common sense, goes a long way. May we believe the simple claims of the Bible instead of complicating them!

Also see:
» Does Matthew 19:27-28 prove Judas is in heaven?
» Was Judas forgiven?
» Who was Judas’ replacement—Matthias or Paul?

Should we observe the Lord’s Supper?

SHOULD WE OBSERVE THE LORD’S SUPPER? IS THAT THE SAME AS THE EUCHARIST OF THE ROMAN CATHOLIC MASS?

by Shawn Brasseaux

What should be the grace believer’s view regarding the Lord’s Supper, sometimes called “Communion?” Should we practice it? If so, how should we do it? If not, why not? Is the Lord’s Supper really the Passover? Was the Lord’s Supper only applicable to believers during the “Acts” (transitional) period? What is the Eucharist—the Lord’s Supper or a counterfeit version of it? These are excellent questions, and the only way to find sound answers is to look and see what the Holy Scriptures actually say about the matter, instead of presuming what they say.

For many years, I was like the millions upon millions of people confused about the Lord’s Supper. Thankfully, some years ago, a wise, dear brother in Christ pointed me in the right direction. Since then, I have further studied and considered the matter from various angles. This article is the culmination of nearly five years of thoughtful Bible study and research. Now complete, it is offered as our special edition 125th Bible Q&A study. Beloved, I am more convinced than ever that the information contained herein is greatly needed. In order to settle the matter in his or her mind, the reader is greatly urged to take his or her Bible and look at the verses presented.

In order to sufficiently analyze the topic, this article is rather long and it will be technical at times. Hence, the reader is strongly encouraged to read the conclusion first, and then read the article to “fill in the details” and see the reasoning behind the conclusion. Again, the reader will undoubtedly read some startling statements in this study, but how he or she is urged to look at the verses presented and, by faith, take his or her stand on the verses!

THE PROTESTANT AND ROMAN CATHOLIC DIVISION

I grew up in various Baptist churches, so I have seen the “Lord’s Supper” according to that denominational system (typical of the Protestant view of the Lord’s Supper). I have also witnessed the Roman Catholic Mass on some occasions, also known as “the Eucharist,” so I have watched the non-Protestant view of the “Lord’s Supper.” Let me reassure you that while the Protestant “Lord’s Supper” and the Roman Catholic “Lord’s Supper” are similar, they, upon further examination, are in fact two vastly different practices, and neither has any solid Scriptural support. Superficially, they appear to agree with the Bible, but upon further scrutiny, they expose themselves as nothing more than religious formalism void of truth. Remember, Satan is the master counterfeiter, attempting to “be like the most High” (Isaiah 14:14). Yes, “the Devil is in the details!”

We need to define the “Lord’s Supper” as the Bible would. As with every Bible topic, there is very little understanding and overwhelming confusion, so if we are to ask, “Is the Lord’s Supper applicable to us?,” lest we add to the confusion, we need to first define what it is using the Bible. People often say this is “the Lord’s Supper” or that is “the Lord’s Supper,” and they really have no idea what they are saying or what they are endorsing. We will begin our discussion by analyzing the Protestant definition of “the Lord’s Supper” and the Roman Catholic definition of “the Lord’s Supper.” We will then analyze the Lord’s Supper as the Holy Scriptures define it.

Drawing on my knowledge as a former Baptist (and other Baptists have confirmed this to me), this is how the average Protestant “Lord’s Supper” is carried out:

The minister begins by reading a verse such as, “Take, eat: this is my body, which is broken for you: this do in remembrance of me” (1 Corinthians 11:24). Then, the deacons walk the aisles, carrying trays of small pieces of bread, distributing this bread to adults as well as to children of a certain age. People are urged to have a right heart before God, or they are instructed not to take the bread. All the members of the congregation eat the bread together. Next, the minister reads a verse such as, “This cup is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me” (1 Corinthians 11:25). After this verse is read, the deacons walk the aisles, carrying trays of small cups of grape juice, again allowing adults and children who had reached a certain age, to take a cup. Finally, all members of the congregation drink the juice at the same time. It is thus concluded by the dismissal of the assembly. Compared to the Mass, this is a rather simple procedure.

Having witnessed the Roman Catholic Mass first-hand on some occasions, watching videos of it being executed, and consulting a Roman Catholic priest and seminarian, as well as a Roman Catholic religion textbook, I will now explain how the average Roman Catholic “Lord’s Supper”—or, in Roman Catholic terminology, “the Eucharist”—is executed:

The Mass is divided into two parts—“the Liturgy of the Word” and “the Liturgy of the Eucharist.”

First, “the Liturgy of the Word:” The priest (or perhaps another person in the church) reads various Bible verses. These verses are in a book of selected Scripture readings called the “Missal.” The priest also briefly comments on the verses (his “homily”), recites a creed (Catholic beliefs outlined) with the congregation, and offers various prayers. The congregation in unison responds at times, reciting phrases from their Missals. Songs are sung in between readings.

Now, to “the Liturgy of the Eucharist:” Like the Protestants, the bread and the cup follow the Scripture readings. The bread and wine are presented with the offerings of the faithful. Then, the offering is made in Christ’s name, of the bread and wine for and with the whole Church. Next, the consecratory prayer is said to change the bread into Christ’s body and to change the wine into Christ’s blood (“transubstantiation”). Verses similar to the ones Protestants quote from the night before Jesus died, are said. The “Lord’s Prayer” is recited and other prayers may be uttered. A “sign of peace” is offered—all the faithful in the pews shake hands with each other and/or greet each other in some other manner. The priest eats part of the wafer and drinks wine from the chalice (sometimes he drinks all the wine in the chalice). Finally, the people receive the Eucharist (sometimes bread and wine are offered to the people, other times only the priest drinks the wine; there are variations within parishes and churches). Concluding prayers are said, and the assembly is dismissed.

Unlike a Baptist minister, in the Eucharistic service, a Roman Catholic priest has permission to use altar wine (18 to 22 proof; or 9 to 11 percent alcohol), and, if he prefers, he may use whiskey/bourbon (196 proof; or 98 percent alcohol)! These intoxicating, alcoholic beverages contradict Saint Paul’s words in Ephesians 5:18. Also, many years ago, priests were only allowed to touch the cup and the bread with certain fingers, the three fingers on each hand that had been anointed at their ordination (these ecclesiastical laws are now relaxed, although some still observe them). A fast and a confession of sins are necessary before the consumption of the Eucharist.

It is highly important to remember that the starkest difference between the Protestant “Lord’s Supper” and the Roman Catholic “Lord’s Supper” is:

PROTESTANTS. Most Protestants believe that the juice (or wine) merely symbolizes Christ’s blood and the bread merely symbolizes Christ’s body. The bread is still seen and understood to be bread, and the juice (or wine) is still seen and understood to be juice (or wine). It is believed that Jesus Christ is not literally present and not physically present in the bread and juice (or wine).

ROMAN CATHOLICS. Roman Catholics, however, are taught to believe that, once the priest speaks “the words of consecration,” the wine literally becomes Christ’s blood and the bread literally becomes Christ’s body. The Roman Mass claims to literally and physically have Jesus Christ Himself present on the altar, just in a “veiled” form, merely appearing to be bread and wine. Jesus is believed to be fully present, soul and divinity, in the wafer. The bread is worshipped as Christ because it is thought to truly be Christ Himself. It is bowed or genuflected before. The Council of Trent decreed that anyone (that is, Protestants) who disagreed with the Roman Church regarding the Eucharist was under a curse! (They cursed the Apostle Paul and God Himself as well!)

Notice the first five of the nine decrees of the Council of Trent’s 22nd session (1562) “On the Sacrifice of the Mass:”

“CANON I.—If any one saith, that in the mass a true and proper sacrifice is not offered to God; or, that to be offered is nothing else but that Christ is given us to eat; let him be anathema. CANON II.—If any one saith, that by those words, Do this for the commemoration of me (Luke xxii. 19), Christ did not institute the apostles priests; or, did not ordain that they, and other priests should offer His own body and blood; let him be anathema. CANON III.—If any one saith, that the sacrifice of the mass is only a sacrifice of praise and of thanksgiving; or, that it is a bare commemoration of the sacrifice consummated on the cross, but not a propitiatory sacrifice; or, that it profits him only who receives; and that it ought not to be offered for the living and the dead for sins, pains, satisfactions, and other necessities; let him be anathema. CANON IV.—If any one saith, that, by the sacrifice of the mass, a blasphemy is cast upon the most holy sacrifice of Christ consummated on the cross; or, that it is thereby derogated from; let him be anathema. CANON V.—If any one saith, that it is an imposture to celebrate masses in honour of the saints, and for obtaining their intercession with God, as the Church intends; let him be anathema.” (The canons and decrees of the sacred and oecumenical Council of Trent, Ed. and trans. J. Waterworth [London: Dolman, 1848], 152-170.) (Bold emphasis mine.)

The religious textbook Introduction to Catholicism (ed. Rev. James Socias, Midwest Theological Forum, 2005) says on page 156, “Since the Eucharist is one and the same with Jesus’ sacrifice on the Cross, it stands as the greatest proof of God’s love. … But more than just a memorial, the actual sacrifice of Christ is presented to us in the Liturgy of the Eucharist.” Page 158 says, “Because it is Christ himself, the Eucharist is the holiest thing in the world.” And Page 159, “…[T]he Eucharist is the Lord himself, rather than just another food.” And Page 162, “The Eucharist both makes present and re-presents (presents again) this sacrifice of Jesus.” Finally, pages 163-164, “At the instant the words of consecration are spoken, he becomes truly present in flesh and blood.” (Bold emphasis mine.) As the Catechism also makes abundantly clear, the Roman Catholic Church teaches that the Eucharist is the exact same sacrifice that Jesus Christ made on Calvary 2,000 years ago! Of course, Jesus is said to be offered in the Mass in an “unbloody manner” (contradicting Hebrews 9:22, which says there is no remission/forgiveness without the shedding of blood).

By the way, the Scriptures never teach that the Lord’s Supper is a “sacrifice;” the Mass, however, is believed to be a sacrifice. Again, it is said to be Calvary’s sacrifice re-presented, and the Mass is for the forgiveness of sins (yet no forgiveness can be given without shed blood; Hebrews 9:22). The offering of the Mass is for the living and the dead (those believed to be in purgatory). The Mass is the cornerstone of Roman Catholicism, which is why their writings are so fervent in defending it. That is why the Roman Church has such an awful attitude toward those who disagree with its “holy meal.” (By the way, a more in-depth analysis of the unscriptural Mass will be forthcoming in due time, Lord willing.)

WHAT IS THE BIBLE-BELIEVING CHRISTIAN TO DO?

Paul wrote in 1 Corinthians 11:26, “For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord’s death till he come.” Clearly, the Corinthians were to observe something called “the Lord’s Supper” in order to proclaim and demonstrate the Lord’s death at Calvary. We need to determine what the “Lord’s Supper” is in the Bible and not confuse it with the religionized version of the “Lord’s Supper” (delineated above). We will thus be able to observe “the Lord’s Supper” as the Bible instructs (1 Corinthians 11:20, or, more correctly, “the Lord’s Table;” 1 Corinthians 10:21).

Remember, in Corinth, there was something called “the table of devils” (1 Corinthians 10:21). The Corinthians were dabbling in such a practice, and Paul wrote all of chapter 10 to warn them that they had fallen into the same Satanic trap in which Israel had centuries prior. Verse 22 of 1 Corinthians chapter 10 says: “But I say, that the things which the Gentiles sacrifice, they sacrifice to devils, and not to God: and I would not that ye should have fellowship with devils.” Even today, in various religions and denominations, there are special “holy meals,” various meals involving “sacrifices,” counterfeit versions of the Passover and the Lord’s Supper (refer to the earlier Protestant and Roman Catholic comments with which we began this study, which actually have roots in religious meals the pagans held centuries before Christianity). Beloved, if it is not the Lord’s Table as described in the New Testament Scriptures, it is in fact “the table of devils!”

Furthermore, the context of 1 Corinthians chapter 11 is the conclusion of a four-chapter-long section—chapters 8-11—dealing with the issue of eating foods offered to pagan idols. The first verse of chapter 8 and the first verse of chapter 12 mark the beginning and ending of this thought-flow of pagan idol worship and associated food offerings:

1 Corinthians 8:1: “Now as touching things offered unto idols, we know that we all have knowledge. Knowledge puffeth up, but charity edifieth.”

1 Corinthians 12:1: “Now concerning spiritual gifts, brethren, I would not have you ignorant.”

The Bible believer is here cautioned to be aware of the existence of “the table of devils” and avoid it! The Bible believer mature in the Scriptures will be able to recognize the true Lord’s Supper when he or she sees it.

We first read about “bread and wine” in the Bible in Genesis 14:18, when Melchizedek brought these to Abraham after the latter defeated the kings. In Scripture, “breaking bread” is indicative of a meal, not a snack, not eating just a small piece of bread or tiny wafer or drinking one sip of wine or juice (as in the Roman Catholic Mass or Protestant “Lord’s Supper”). We read about “the breaking of bread” in Luke 24:27-35, Acts 2:42-46, and Acts 20:7, all of which are connected to believers communing with one another around a meal, discussing God’s Word with each other. Surely, these believers did not take just take one sip of wine (specifically, juice)—who drinks just a single sip of a liquid and expects to have thirst quenched? Surely, they were not grabbing one piece of bread and eating that alone—surely their stomachs were not filled with one fragment of bread! Again, it was a full-fledged meal, not a snack. It is not called, “the Lord’s Snack,” but rather, “the Lord’s Supper (would you call a piece of bread and a small cup of juice, a “supper?”).

We now proceed to answer six questions about (often objections to) grace believers observing the Lord’s Supper today in this the Dispensation of Grace. This section of the article will better explain the Lord’s Supper as the Bible teaches it:

QUESTION 1: IS THE LORD’S SUPPER “RELIGIOUS TRADITION?”

As demonstrated earlier, the simple issue of the Lord’s Supper has been greatly complicated and confused by both Roman Catholic and Protestant church tradition. Understandably, here within the grace community, some well-meaning believers have totally repudiated the Lord’s Supper. They disagree with the Protestant “Lord’s Supper” and they starkly disagree with the Roman Catholic Mass, so they completely reject the idea of us needing to observe any type of “fellowship meal” in church. In their minds, any and every observance of the Lord’s Supper is totally unacceptable. It is all vain, worthless tradition and mindless ceremony to them. We will now briefly address this objection.

Years ago, while dispensational Bible study was still a new concept to me, a grace believer of the above persuasion told me that the Lord’s Supper was nothing more than vain tradition and that we should have nothing to do with it. Remember, I had grown up with Protestant church tradition. I had given up Baptist theology in order to better appreciate and enjoy the grace life that God had given me many years earlier in Christ. In my mind, “tradition” was now something to be avoided; it was anti-grace and anti-Christian, destructive, satanic, something that God did not want for me. If what this person said about the Lord’s Supper being “tradition” was true, then I wanted to repudiate the Lord’s Supper too! I had had enough of religious confusion in Baptist churches and I could not stand to hear and embrace any more tradition. Once I heard his comments, however, I became even more confused. Why? Other grace believers had previously told me that they observed the Lord’s Supper, assuring me that it was not tradition-oriented but grace-motivated. I was now thoroughly confused! (This is not an isolated occurrence. Over the years, countless grace believers, just as confused as I once was, have asked me what to believe about the Lord’s Supper. Some grace believers had also discouraged them from observing it; other grace believers had told them the Lord’s Supper was applicable to us. This article is meant to answer all of those questions and correct all those misconceptions in one concise study.)

Honestly, what concerns us is that these alleged “grace believers” telling us not to observe the Lord’s Supper, although sincere, are just as ignorant of the Bible’s view of it as the denominationalists. Not only are the denominationalists confused about the Lord’s Supper; many grace believers are just as mystified about it! All of these individuals suffer from the confusion I once had. They only know the Lord’s Supper as church tradition defines and teaches it, so they never get it resolved in their minds (actually, the Protestant version is just a carryover from the Roman Catholic practice—one of the church traditions Protestants retained when they broke from Rome centuries ago).

Some grace believers say one activity is the Lord’s Supper and then observe it. Roman Catholics say something else is the Lord’s Supper and they observe that. Protestants say another ceremony is the Lord’s Supper and they observe that. Some grace believers say they do not observe the Lord’s Supper at all. The grace community is here divided as Christendom. Oh, what a pity that we have such confusion when there is such simplicity in Christ (2 Corinthians 11:3)! Oh, what a pity that the Bible already made it clear what we are to do and very few bother to read, hear, and believe what it says!

Dear friends, we need to resolve in our minds to believe whatever Paul the Apostle believed about the Lord’s Supper. We need to see how he viewed it, and adopt that view. After all, what the Apostle Paul believed is what the Holy Spirit believed. We know that that would be what God would have us to believe. What would the Holy Spirit have us believe?

To say that we, the Church the Body of Christ, have no Lord’s Supper to observe today is in stark contrast to Paul’s words to the Corinthians. As members of the Church the Body of Christ, he instructed them to participate in something called “The Lord’s Supper,” or more correctly, “The Lord’s Table,” in 1 Corinthians 11:17-34. How could the Apostle Paul encourage Christians to do something unacceptable? How could God through Paul instruct us to embrace “religious tradition?” The answer to both questions is, “He could not and did not!” Dear friends, it bears repeating. It is important that we learn the Bible’s definition of the Lord’s Supper, before we reject it. How religion defines it and how the Bible defines it are two separate matters.

Religious tradition can take on many forms, even in grace circles, and we should most certainly be careful not to embrace tradition, especially the tradition of letting church tradition define Bible terms for us, thereby corrupting our minds and making us opposed to true, pure Bible terms and doctrines. Religion has definitely hijacked the definition of the Lord’s Supper and, consequently, counterfeited the Lord’s Supper, but we should not let that keep us from remembering what the ascended, risen, and glorified Lord Jesus Christ instructed us to do in 1 Corinthians 11:17-34.

QUESTION 2: IS THE LORD’S SUPPER “ACTS-ONLY?”

Some grace people have told me that while the Lord’s Supper was encouraged in 1 Corinthians 11:17-34, that was not an exhortation to us. They say that it was only for Christians to observe during the book of Acts (Paul wrote 1 Corinthians during the latter half of the book of Acts). In other words, they told me that the Lord’s Supper was not meant for us to observe today. We will now look at this question (often posed as an objection).

Simply put, this objection originates from a group of “grace believers” known as the “Acts 28ers.” Blatantly contradicting 1 Corinthians 12:2, Acts chapter 14, Acts chapter 17, Galatians 1:16, 1 Thessalonians 1:9, and other verses, they believe that Paul did not minister to pagan Gentiles such as ourselves during the book of Acts. They believe that Jesus Christ sent Paul twice—once to Jews and Greeks (Acts chapter 9), and once to pagan Gentiles (later, near the end of the book of Acts). Hence, they believe that there is one Body of Christ during Acts (composed only of Jews and Greeks who worshipped in synagogues, who were saved according to the Old Testament covenants), and another Body of Christ after Acts (mostly composed of idol-worshipping Gentiles, those apart from the covenants). They believe that God later joined these two Bodies of Christ to form one Body of Christ (their outlandish interpretation of Ephesians 2:13-18 and Ephesians 3:1-9).

In short, the “Acts 28” position is a very dangerous approach (I almost fell into that trap years ago but have since become aware of it). Its greatest error is the conclusion that Paul’s Acts epistles (Romans, Corinthians, Galatians, and Thessalonians) do not apply to us, and that only Paul’s prison (post-Acts) epistles have any relevance to us (Ephesians, Philippians, Colossians, Timothy, Titus, and Philemon). Years ago, I heard one such “Acts 28” preacher tell a whole assembly of grace preachers and believers, “Even if we just had Paul’s prison epistles, we would be okay!” (What heresy, something not even heard in most denominational churches!)

“Acts 28” is a very absurd position to take, a very confusing system to embrace, and it is no wonder that denominationalists are so anti-dispensational-Bible-study when we have people calling such nonsense “Bible understanding” and “God’s method of Bible study.” These individuals (as well as those “Acts 9” people who adopt parts of the “Acts 28” position) then argue that the Lord’s Supper only applies to those believers in Acts, for Paul only mentions the Lord’s Supper in 1 Corinthians chapter 11 (he never wrote about the Lord’s Supper in his post-Acts, or prison, epistles, which alone are said to apply to us, so it is assumed the Lord’s Supper is not applicable to us).

To say that the Corinthians had been strictly Jew and Greek synagogue-attending worshippers is to ignore that Paul himself wrote that the Corinthians had been idol-worshipping Gentiles, heathens, ignorant of the one true God (see 1 Corinthians 12:1-2). They were saved under Paul’s Acts ministry, and yet, they were completely ignorant of covenants and promises made to Israel. Like us, the Corinthians were Gentiles, on their way to hell before Paul visited them and preached to them the Gospel of the Grace of God. They were saved just like we are today, in the same Body of Christ we are in as believers today. There has been, still is, and always will be one Body of Christ—there has never, ever been a split body and Paul’s epistles are not meant to be divided in such a silly manner. Contrary to what some “grace people” may tell us, we should not throw away Paul’s “Acts” epistles (Romans, Corinthians, Galatians, Thessalonians). They apply to us, and “rightly dividing Paul’s epistles” is completely foreign to the Apostles’ minds (both Paul and the 12). We study and believe all of Paul’s epistles, and all books of Paul concern us and apply to us, not just the epistles of Paul that a “grace” traditionalist believes to be applicable to us.

QUESTION 3: IS THE LORD’S SUPPER REALLY “PASSOVER?”

Some grace people use the following argument: “The Lord’s Supper is actually Passover. Since Passover is a Jewish feast, and Colossians 2:16 says Israel’s holydays do not apply to us, we have no reason to observe the Lord’s Supper.” Dear friends, whenever someone says that the Lord’s Supper is really Passover, they may mean well, but they are demonstrating their Bible ignorance. Seven Scriptural reasons will be cited now to prove that the Passover and the Lord’s Supper are not the same meal.

DIFFERENCE #1: THE PASSOVER AND THE LORD’S SUPPER ARE SEPARATE AND DISTINCT. The Lord Jesus Himself considered the Passover and the bread and wine to be two distinct meals (He would have had the correct view, would He not?). The Lord Jesus and His disciples had a meal on the night before He died at Calvary. Not many people ever realize it, but Jesus Christ and His disciples had two distinct meals on the night before He was crucified. The first meal that Jesus had with His apostles on the night before He died, was the Passover feast. The Passover consisted of the main course, roasted lamb or goat, and it was eaten with bitter herbs and unleavened bread (as per Moses’ instructions in Exodus 12:3-10). Jesus Himself considered that they ate the Passover that night: “With desire I have desired to eat this passover with you before I suffer” (Luke 22:16). Now, after they had already begun eating the Passover (Matthew 26:26; Mark 14:22), the Lord Jesus singled out bread and wine, and blessed them (prayed over them, giving Father God thanks; Matthew 26:26-27; Mark 14:22-23; Luke 22:17,19). Jesus prayed because it was the beginning of another meal, not a continuation of the eating they had done earlier with the lamb and unleavened bread. This bread and this wine were not the Passover meal, but another special meal. We know it was not the Passover meal since the Passover had lamb or goat as its main course (Exodus chapter 12). It is here that He held bread and said it was His body and held a cup of wine and said it was His blood (Matthew 26:26-29, Mark 14:22-25, Luke 22:17-20). In this meal, bread—not a lamb as in the Passover (1 Corinthians 5:7)—symbolized Jesus Christ’s body. In this meal, wine—not lamb’s blood as in the Passover (1 Corinthians 5:7)—symbolized His blood. By the way, the “fruit of the vine” (Matthew 26:29; Mark 14:25; Luke 22:18) would not be an intoxicating beverage as some teach (or promote at the altar during Communion today!); the language indicates unfermented grape juice, straight from the vine.

The Apostle Paul made reference to this second meal in 1 Corinthians 11:23-34, particularly quoting Jesus’ words in Luke chapter 22. Paul himself said, “For I have received of the Lord that which also I delivered unto you, That the Lord Jesus the same night in which he was betrayed took bread…” (1 Corinthians 11:23). Take special care to observe that Paul did not grab something from Israel’s program (that is, the Passover) and then make it apply to us. The Lord Jesus Christ Himself told Paul to write this passage to us Gentiles, that the Corinthians (and we as other members of the Body of Christ) would follow its pattern in holding and partaking of the Lord’s Supper.

DIFFERENCE #2: THE PASSOVER AND THE LORD’S SUPPER ARE SEPARATE AND DISTINCT. It would be completely absurd for the Lord to impose the Passover meal on us and then tell us in Colossians 2:16 that we are not bound to observe Israel’s religious calendar in this the Dispensation of Grace (cf. Galatians 4:9-11, written during Acts). Remember, the Passover commemorated Israel’s deliverance from Egyptian bondage. Why would we Christians need to observe it? Were we ever in Egyptian slavery? Did we put lamb’s blood on our doorposts and lintels to keep out the Death Angel? Did Moses lead us out of Egypt? The Lord’s Supper and Passover are certainly not the same meal. (NOTE: To say that the Lord’s Supper is Passover would actually agree with the Acts 28er’s view, since that view teaches there was a “Jewish Body of Christ” during Acts, and that Paul was writing to Moses-observing Jews in 1 Corinthians chapter 11, telling them to keep the Passover. This would be an erroneous claim, since Galatians, the most anti-Mosaic-Law book written in Scripture, was penned to members of the Body of Christ during Acts, and Galatians forbids Law-keeping of any and every kind [again, see Galatians 4:9-11 about us not being bound to Israel’s religious calendar].)

DIFFERENCE #3: THE PASSOVER AND THE LORD’S SUPPER ARE SEPARATE AND DISTINCT. As JEHOVAH God told Moses, the Passover was only to be observed in Jerusalem (Deuteronomy 16:2,6), the city where He would put His name (1 Kings 14:21; 2 Kings 21:4,7; 2 Kings 23:27; 2 Chronicles 33:4; et cetera). Clearly, Paul told the Corinthians to observe the Lord’s Supper in Corinth, hundreds of miles or kilometers from Jerusalem (1 Corinthians 11:26). Would the Holy Spirit break His Word, speaking through Paul words that contradicted what He had told Israel centuries earlier regarding the Passover? Passover is strictly a Jewish feast day, it is to always be observed in Jerusalem in the Bible, and it has nothing to do with us Gentiles because Exodus chapter 12 has nothing to do with us. Again, Passover and the Lord’s Supper are different issues.

DIFFERENCE #4: THE PASSOVER AND THE LORD’S SUPPER ARE SEPARATE AND DISTINCT. In 1 Corinthians 11:26-28, the Lord’s Supper in Corinth is not said to have lamb or goat, but merely a cup and bread (and, remember, Exodus chapter 12 specified that lamb or goat be the main course of the Passover). Again, these blatant distinctions show that the Passover and the Lord’s Supper are not to be confused.

DIFFERENCE #5: THE PASSOVER AND THE LORD’S SUPPER ARE SEPARATE AND DISTINCT. Exodus 12:48 says that no strangers of Israel or uncircumcised males were to eat the Passover meal. God commanded that Gentiles be physically circumcised before eating the Passover with the Jews. Paul affirmed there were physically uncircumcised Gentiles in Corinth (1 Corinthians 7:18-20), Christians, but he never told them to be physically circumcised before they could eat of the Lord’s Supper. There is absolutely nothing about physical circumcision being a requirement in 1 Corinthians chapter 11. In fact, there were no commandments in that chapter about any Gentile Christian anywhere (in or outside Corinth) needing to be physically circumcised in order to eat the Lord’s Supper. We conclude yet again that the Lord’s Supper and Passover are two distinct meals.

DIFFERENCE #6: THE PASSOVER AND THE LORD’S SUPPER ARE SEPARATE AND DISTINCT. According to Exodus 12:1-14 and Leviticus 23:5, Passover was only once a year: it was held on the fourteenth day of the first month of Israel’s religious calendar, Abib (March-April on our Gregorian calendar). When discussing the Lord’s Supper in 1 Corinthians chapter 11, there is absolutely nothing about having it once a year and nothing about having it in the month Abib. That Judaism calendar did not apply to heathen or to the Body of Christ. All we read is, “For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord’s death till he come” (1 Corinthians 11:26). How often should the Lord’s Supper be observed? The Bible never stipulates! The absence of such a schedule is yet another indication that the Lord’s Supper and the Passover are separate practices.

DIFFERENCE #7: THE PASSOVER AND THE LORD’S SUPPER ARE SEPARATE AND DISTINCT. Finally, the most obvious of all differences. When the Passover is mentioned by name in Scripture (Exodus, and the Four Gospels, for example), the terms “Lord’s Supper” do not appear in the context. When the term “the Lord’s Supper” appears in the Bible—only in 1 Corinthians chapter 11—there is not so much as one usage of the term “Passover” in the context.

Beloved, these seven differences evident from the Bible indicate that the Holy Spirit made every effort to show us that the Lord’s Supper and Passover are two entirely different meals. Yet, amazingly, some Bible believers go around claiming that they are one and the same meal!

QUESTION 4: WHAT DOES “EATING AND DRINKING DAMNATION [TO YOURSELF]” MEAN?

Verses 27-29 of 1 Corinthians chapter 11 have been very misconstrued to teach some bizarre, and actually quite ridiculous, dogmas. Ministers and denominations use these verses to scare church members into doing what they want them to do to further the denominational system. The Roman Catholic Church especially capitalizes on the ignorance associated with these verses, in order to advance the doctrine of “transubstantiation.” (“It must be the Lord’s literal body and blood or God would not attach such punishment as damnation!”) Dear readers, we could not have a study about the Lord’s Supper and neglect addressing the misunderstanding of “eating and drinking damnation [to yourself].” (I personally believe this issue is one of the main reasons why so many are scared of the Lord’s Supper, and why they fear getting involved with it.)

“[27] Wherefore whosoever shall eat this bread, and drink this cup of the Lord, unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord. [28] But let a man examine himself, and so let him eat of that bread, and drink of that cup. [29] For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh damnation to himself, not discerning the Lord’s body.” How can a Christian partake of the Lord’s Supper “unworthily?” Is not the Christian “worthy” of everything God offers, seeing as to the Christian is “in Christ” (2 Corinthians 5:17) and “accepted in the beloved” (Ephesians 1:6)? The best way to look at the word “unworthily” is to notice its context.

Returning to 1 Corinthians chapter 11, we read: “[17] Now in this that I declare unto you I praise you not, that ye come together not for the better, but for the worse. [21] For in eating every one taketh before other his own supper: and one is hungry, and another is drunken. [22] What? have ye not houses to eat and to drink in? or despise ye the church of God, and shame them that have not? what shall I say to you? shall I praise you in this? I praise you not. [30] For this cause many are weak and sickly among you, and many sleep.”

God designed the Lord’s Supper to be a time of fellowshipping. During it, Christians should enjoy the company of other believers, communing with them, eating a meal with them and getting to know them better (just as our flesh and blood family members hold large gatherings around food, that they may bond with one another). The Lord’s Table should be a joyous time, a time of being in the presence of others who also value and esteem God’s Word rightly divided (pardon the pun, but the Lord’s Supper is a small “taste” of heaven!). After all, all those who have trusted Jesus Christ alone as Saviour are God’s children, and thus are brothers and sisters in Christ (Galatians 3:26). This is why the Bible calls the Lord’s Table “communion” (as in fellowship, unity). We read in 1 Corinthians 10:16-17: “[16] The cup of blessing which we bless, is it not the communion of the blood of Christ? The bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of Christ? [17] For we being many are one bread, and one body: for we are all partakers of that one bread.” The Lord’s Supper not only symbolizes our oneness with Jesus Christ our Saviour (through His death on Calvary), but it also pictures our oneness with other Christians (see 1 Corinthians 12:1-31).

Alas, the wonderful atmosphere delineated in the above paragraph was absent from Corinth! Since the Corinthians were carnal, fleshly, unable to understand how their Christian lives were meant to function, they fought with each other and destroyed each other. Whenever the Corinthian saints met, many argued. They came as drunkards and/or gluttons (drunkenness a main factor in their disorderliness). Gathering with the saints in Corinth was not beneficial (as God intended) but very harmful to all in attendance (as Satan intended). Pride, envy, and bitterness abounded. They were not walking charitably, thinking of other Christians, as Romans chapter 14 instructed. These carnal saints did not see any value in fellowshipping with other believers. They did not recognize the importance of gathering with other believers. They did not see any use in seeking the edification (building up) of other Christians. These Corinthians did not see any value in the Lord’s Supper. They were eating and drinking “unworthily” in the sense of not seeing any worth in what God had ordained! They were abusing the meal that represented the sacrifice of Jesus Christ on Calvary. If they were mocking that which symbolized Jesus’ sacrifice on Calvary, what would they do if Jesus Christ were literally hanging on a cross there in Corinth? This is “being guilty of the body and blood of the Lord” and “not discerning [judging, concluding, finding value in] the Lord’s body” (1 Corinthians 11:27,29). If you have a poor attitude toward the representation of something, how much worse you think of the actual thing!

With regards to eating and drinking to ourselves “damnation” in the Lord’s Supper, it is not (as someone told me) a reference to Judas Iscariot (how absurd!). It is actually a description of what happens when we make a mockery of Calvary in the local assembly. The “damnation” of 1 Corinthians 11:29 is actually the “condemnation” (same Greek word, krima) as of verse 34: [33] Wherefore, my brethren, when ye come together to eat, tarry one for another. [34] And if any man hunger, let him eat at home; that ye come not together unto condemnation.” Please take special care to note that this “damnation” is not that Christians die and go to hell for abusing the Lord’s Supper, but rather God not approving (“condemning,” “damning”) behavior that would not be in the life of Jesus Christ Himself. It is a lifestyle that the godly conscience would also condemn!

Here are some examples of abusing the Lord’s Supper: (1) using intoxicating beverages and then becoming drunken (Ephesians 5:18), (2) overeating, making the food the issue instead of God’s Word and Christ’s finished crosswork (Romans 14:15-23), (3) making it out to be a “social club” where we go to discuss nonsense, worldly affairs, and other topics which disagree with sound Bible doctrine (Colossians 3:5-17), and (4) coming to the Lord’s Supper fussing and fighting with other believers in the assembly (Galatians 5:15-26; Ephesians 4:31-32). God would condemn such behavior: again, this “damnation” is not that Christians die and go to hell for abusing the Lord’s Supper, but rather God not approving (“condemning,” “damning”) behavior that is contrary to grace doctrine (Christian living; see Romans 14:22-23). Satan used these various fleshly activities to pollute the Lord’s Supper in Corinth, to cripple their testimony and render them useless for God’s work. Every local church today needs to be especially careful that it not allow the Devil to use these carnal behaviors to ruin its godly testimony. It is the responsibility of the church leadership to maintain order in the assembly (1 Timothy 3:1-16).

It is necessary to point out why there were sick and dying Christians in Corinth. It is said that God was judging them for their sins, chastising them, killing them, and that God will “get us” (either with sickness or death) if we abuse the Lord’s Supper. Not at all. When 1 Corinthians 11:30 says, “For this cause many are weak and sickly among you, and many sleep,” you must remember the context.

As we mentioned earlier, some of the Corinthians had become intoxicated gluttons when participating in the Lord’s Supper (see verses 21-22). Overeating and drunkenness surely cause illness and even death. God was not punishing the Corinthians for their bad behavior; they simply reaped the results of their sowing to the flesh instead of sowing to the Spirit. God was not causing the Corinthians to get sick and/or to die; He simply let them reap the consequences of their actions. “[7] Be not deceived; God is not mocked: for whatsoever a man soweth, that shall he also reap. [8] For he that soweth to his flesh shall of the flesh reap corruption; but he that soweth to the Spirit shall of the Spirit reap life everlasting” (Galatians 6:7-8). The Corinthians preferred drunkenness and gluttony, so God let them exercise free will to pursue it. Although Jesus Christ has taken away the eternal penalty of our sins (hell and the lake of fire), please understand that God will not remove the consequences of our poor judgment. If we choose a lifestyle of drugs and alcohol, God will not shield us from the ill effects and poor health such a lifestyle brings. God will not keep us out of prison if we murder someone, commit theft, and so on. Again, the Corinthians were experiencing the natural results of their behavior. It was not God directing sickness and death to trouble them.

Here is where dispensational Bible study is so important. This is why “rightly dividing the word of truth” (2 Timothy 2:15) is the key to understanding how God deals with us today. Today, God does not bless us on the basis of our works, our performance; moreover, God does not curse on the basis of our works, our performance. This is made abundantly clear in Paul’s epistle to the Romans and in his epistle to the Galatians. Romans 6:14-15: “[14] For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace. [15] What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid.” We are blessed with every spiritual blessing only because of Jesus Christ’s finished crosswork, not because we confessed our sins, lived a good life, prayed often, gave money to the church, got water baptized, et cetera. Our works are not the issue because God’s Word has already made it abundantly clear that our “good” works are as “filthy rags” (Isaiah 64:6).

QUESTION 5: WHAT DOES “THIS IS NOT TO EAT THE LORD’S SUPPER” MEAN?

In light of Paul’s words in 1 Corinthians 11:20, some grace believers say that we do not need to observe the Lord’s Supper: “When ye come together therefore into one place, this is not to eat the Lord’s supper.” They say that we do not come together to eat the Lord’s Supper, that the purpose of “church service” is not to have the Lord’s Supper. Dear friends, to say that is the result of grabbing a verse from its context and twisting it all out of shape. There are three verses that precede verse 20, and we need to look at them in order to understand what verse 20 really says: “[17] Now in this that I declare unto you I praise you not, that ye come together not for the better, but for the worse. [18] For first of all, when ye come together in the church, I hear that there be divisions among you; and I partly believe it. [19] For there must be also heresies among you, that they which are approved may be made manifest among you.”

The reason why Paul wrote, “When ye come together therefore into one place, this is not to eat the Lord’s Supper,” is not because he was forbidding the observance of the Lord’s Supper (he told them to observe it in verse 26!). He was forbidding the Corinthians from meeting with one another because they were so carnal, so reproachful to the Christian name. As we discussed earlier, they came together in fellowship not for the better but for the worse. Paul concluded under the moving of the Holy Spirit that the Corinthians were better off staying at home than meeting in a local and public assembly: they were tearing down one another, giving Satan opportunity to work in their midst, and lost people were watching it! In fact, verse 21 continues: For in drinking every one taketh before other his own supper: and one is hungry, and another is drunken.” Verse 21 explains verse 20—the Corinthians were not coming to observe the Lord’s Supper (to give God glory by eating a meal with other believers) but coming together as drunkards and gluttons (giving Satan praise and glory instead)!

QUESTION 6: WHAT DOES “TILL HE COME” MEAN?

In 1 Corinthians 11:26, we read about the observance of the Lord’s Supper: “For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord’s death till he come.” Once, a grace believer told me that this coming was Christ’s Second Coming, and because it is the Second Coming, we do not have to observe the Lord’s Supper. This logic is unsound, since the Corinthians would not be looking for the Second Coming either—if they were members of the Body of Christ, and they were, then they would be looking for the Rapture just as we are. Like us, they would not be heading into the seven-year Tribulation. Again, dear friends, it helps to use basic Bible understanding before we attempt to defend a preconceived idea or church tradition (even if it parades as “grace teaching!”). The Bible says that, until the Rapture, the Church the Body of Christ is to hold the Lord’s Supper. This would thus further negate the idea that the Lord’s Supper is “Acts-only”—did the Rapture happen in Acts 28? If not, then the Bible says that Christians should observe the Lord’s Supper until the Rapture does happen! Furthermore, if the Second Coming occurred in Acts 28, then indeed the Lord’s Supper was “Acts only.” Did the Second Coming occur in Acts 28? Then the Lord’s Supper is not “Acts only.”

CONCLUSION

While grace people have told me that the Lord’s Supper is “tradition” and that it should not be observed at all, while they have told me they are “turned-off” to the religionized version of the Lord’s Supper (a sip from a cup, a wafer, et cetera), I would rather research the matter using the Bible, and then throw away the error, than blindly follow what others have said about the Lord’s Supper (whether in grace circles or denominational circles). Dear friends, before we allow religion to surreptitiously rob us of something God has given us, we had better get into the Bible and see what God has given us. We can and should toss out everything else, but we must understand what God has already said to us. Rather than rejoicing in the simplicity of God’s Word, we often let the confused religionists dictate to us what God wants us to do, and then we equate God’s Word with their word, and, in our own confusion, we throw away the good with the bad. The whole problem is to get our definitions straight, and then we can differentiate between religion and Bible. It takes a mature saint, yes, but it can be done!

Just as we would not throw away the Bible simply because there are counterfeit Bibles, we will not throw away the Lord’s Supper just because there are counterfeit versions of it. We do not discard the doctrine of God’s grace; we just throw away religion’s definition of “grace.” The same with other words such as, “dispensation,” “baptism,” “repentance,” “good works,” “apostle,” “immaculate conception,” et cetera. We do not throw away the doctrines of baptism, repentance, good works, apostles, immaculate conception, and so on, we just disregard the views that denominations attach to them, and define them as the Bible defines them.

Regarding the Lord’s Supper, when we gather with fellow Christians and have meals with them, we do so around Christ’s finished crosswork. We discuss the Holy Scriptures and enjoy each other’s company. We celebrate the shared life we have in Jesus Christ. The Bible says that we should do this “till [Christ] come” (1 Corinthians 11:26). There is no set schedule as to daily, weekly, monthly, or yearly: we meet and eat with fellow Christians around God’s Word whenever it is convenient for us (if that is twice a month, or twice a year). It is not some mindless ritual. It is not some strict ceremony. It is the assembly of people who value God’s Word, believe Jesus Christ’s finished crosswork, and embrace the grace life.

Yes, we should take special care regarding how we go about in observing the Lord’s Supper. We should learn from the Corinthians’ actions and not abuse the Lord’s Supper with selfishness and other forms of carnality. We should not become gluttons or drunkards; we should not come to the assembly with bitterness or strife (that should all be left at Calvary’s cross by faith). Still, it is not something that should strike fear in our hearts, scared that we will die and go to hell if we do not follow rules and regulations. It is a joyous time because of the Holy Spirit uniting all true Christians. Now we can see why people are so confused about it—the Devil does not want God’s people to be united around truth!

Paul “received of the Lord” the information regarding the Lord’s Supper (1 Corinthians 11:23)—it is not the Passover, it is not “Acts-only,” and it is not a vain religious ceremony, as people commonly assume. Beloved, let us eat together with Christian brethren, rejoicing in the unity (and clarity!) we have in our precious Saviour, the Lord Jesus Christ!

Also see:
» What is “the Marriage Supper of the Lamb?”
» Does “walking in the Spirit” mean the same as “living in the Spirit?”
» Are Christians obligated to observe Passover?

Did David’s father Jesse have seven or eight sons?

DID DAVID’S FATHER JESSE HAVE SEVEN SONS OR EIGHT SONS?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Have you ever wondered how many sons Jesse, David’s father, had?

When the LORD instructed the prophet-priest Samuel to anoint King Saul’s successor as leader of Israel, 1 Samuel 16:10-11 says: “[10] Again, Jesse made seven of his sons to pass before Samuel. And Samuel said unto Jesse, The LORD hath not chosen these. [11] And Samuel said unto Jesse, Are here all thy children? And he said, There remaineth yet the youngest, and, behold, he keepeth the sheep. And Samuel said unto Jesse, Send and fetch him: for we will not sit down till he come hither.”

The above passage says that Jesse had seven sons plus David, or eight sons total. Chapter 17, verse 12, confirms that Jesse had eight sons. David was the youngest, the eighth son of Jesse. Very simple, right?

But, when we come to 1 Chronicles 2:15, which is part of the genealogical record of Jacob’s sons (the twelve tribes of Israel), we find something at variance to 1 Samuel: “[13] And Jesse begat his firstborn Eliab, and Abinanadab his second, and Shimma the third, [14] Nethaneel the fourth, Raddai the fifth, [15] Ozem the sixth, David the seventh:” Why is David listed as “the seventh?” Was not David the eighth son of Jesse? Why are only seven sons listed here?

Evidently, one of David’s older brothers died childless, so his name was not needed in the genealogical record of 1 Chronicles. That brother was alive at the time of 1 Samuel chapter 16, to be rejected as king of Israel, and he died sometime later, childless (reflected by the testimony of 1 Chronicles). David was indeed chronologically the eighth son of Jesse but David was the seventh son of Jesse in terms of fathering children. In other words, Jesse did not have eight sons who became fathers themselves, but rather he had seven sons who fathered children. This seems to be the reasoning behind the totaling of 1 Chronicles 2:15. Again, very simple, right?

Also see:
» Why do Matthew 28:19 and Acts 2:38 contain dissimilar instructions?
» Do not Acts 9:7 and Acts 22:9 contradict each other?
» Why does the Bible say that Jesus was “slain and hanged on a tree?”

Why did Paul tell the Corinthians to be “reconciled to God?”

IF PAUL WRITES TO BELIEVERS, WHY DID HE TELL THE CORINTHIANS TO BE “RECONCILED TO GOD?”

by Shawn Brasseaux

“I have a question about 2 Corinthians 5:20. Since it is taught in grace circles that Paul always writes to believers, why does he urge his audience ‘be ye reconciled to God?’” Great question and thank you for submitting it!

Yes, the Apostle Paul always writes to believers. So, why did he urge the Corinthians to be “reconciled to God” in 2 Corinthians 5:20? Were they not already reconciled with God? The key to understanding 2 Corinthians 5:20 is to notice the verb tense—“Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech you by us: we pray you in Christ’s stead, be ye reconciled to God.” Paul is referring to the time when he first arrived in Corinth in Acts chapter 18, just before the Corinthians trusted Christ.

Prior to Paul visiting Corinth and preaching the Gospel to them, the Corinthians were idolaters (1 Corinthians 12:1-2). At that time, through Paul’s preaching in person, God did beseech the Corinthians to be saved. Sometime later, Paul wrote to the Corinthians in 2 Corinthians in order to remind them of the Gospel message he preached to them back in Acts chapter 18. The Corinthians were not reconciled to God when Paul first went to Corinth and preached to them. Again, 2 Corinthians 5:20 is a flashback, a review of something that happened earlier, an event that occurred prior to Paul writing the epistle of 2 Corinthians (it is not a present-tense beseeching, but a reminder of an earlier beseeching). But why was Paul reminding them of their salvation experience? Why was he retelling them the message he had already preached to them? That will take some explaining.

In the larger context of 2 Corinthians 5:20, Paul is discussing how the Christian life is designed to function, especially Christians and evangelism (soul-winning, believers sharing the Gospel of the Grace of God with others so they can also be saved from their sins and have a home in heaven). To better understand 2 Corinthians 5:20, we will begin reading in verse 14: “[14] For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead: [15] And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.”

As verse 14 says in the King James Bible, it is Jesus Christ’s love for us that drives us, that propels us, to function in the Christian life. It is not our weak, intermittent love for Him, but His endless, matchless, constant, unfathomable love for us! Our love for Him is nothing, NOTHING, in light of His love for us. It is His love for us that is powerful, that drives us and empowers us.

How does Christ’s love constrain us? “Because we thus judge,” verse 14 continues. There is a thinking process, a judgment, involved, in Christian living. We consider how Jesus Christ so loved us, “[God’s] great love wherewith He loved us” (Ephesians 2:4). We think about Calvary’s cruel cross, where the sinless, eternal Son of God faced the awful wrath of the holy, eternal God the Father. On that terrible Roman cross, the soul of Jesus Christ Himself was offered as a ransom for our sins! He died that we might die, and He died that we might live, for in rising again He gave us His resurrection life.

We just read in 2 Corinthians 5:14-15: “…if one died for all, then were all dead: [15] And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.” The Christian life, our Christian life, is not really ours; it is the life that Jesus Christ gave to us the moment we trusted Him alone as our personal Saviour. The Bible says, “I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me” (Galatians 2:20). We died with Jesus on Calvary (Romans 6:6), and we were raised again with Him “to walk in newness of life” (Romans 6:4). Because our Christian life is actually His life, we should not spend it fulfilling our wishes. It makes sense that we should share His desires, His will, for it is His life and that life should bring Him glory rather than bring us glory. As we will shortly, we have a brand new identity in Christ. We have the same identity that Jesus Christ has before His Heavenly Father!

Paul continues in 2 Corinthians 5:16-17: “[16] Wherefore henceforth know we no man after the flesh: yea, though we have known Christ after the flesh, yet now henceforth know we him no more. [17] Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new.” We do not know anyone anymore on the basis of physical circumcision and physical uncircumcision (that was a time past distinction now done away in Jesus Christ). There really is no Jew or Gentile before God today: the only classes of people God sees is Christians and lost people, people in Christ and people outside of Christ (Galatians 3:26-28). There was a time when Jesus Christ had a ministry to Israel, the circumcision (Romans 15:8; cf. Matthew 15:24; Romans 9:5); there was a time when Jesus Christ dealt with mankind on the basis of physical circumcision and physical uncircumcision. Beginning with the ministry of the Apostle Paul, that distinction is done away. God has rescinded the racial barrier He once erected beginning with Abraham.

We read in Ephesians chapter 2: “[11] Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands; [12] That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world: [13] But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ. [14] For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us; [15] Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; [16] And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby: [17] And came and preached peace to you which were afar off, and to them that were nigh. [18] For through him we both have access by one Spirit unto the Father.”

Today, God is forming the Church the Body of Christ, of believing Jews and believing Gentiles, those who will simply place their faith in the Lord Jesus Christ’s death, burial, and resurrection as sufficient payment for their sins (Romans 4:24-25; 1 Corinthians 15:3-4). God the Holy Spirit takes the believing sinner and baptizes him or her into the Church the Body of Christ (1 Corinthians 12:13). We have received “all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ” (Ephesians 1:3). Thus, 2 Corinthians chapter 5 continues: “[17] Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new. [18] And all things are of God,…” (2 Corinthians 5:17-18a). God has given us a new identity with everything we will ever need! We are forever linked to Jesus Christ, forever saved, forever declared righteous, forever reconciled to God, forever forgiven, forever loved, forever accepted in Jesus. It is settled in God’s mind forever. Permanent. Finished. Done!

Since we are Christians, people who already trusted Jesus Christ as our personal Saviour, God now wants us to preach that Good News to others, that they may, like us, become members of the Church the Body of Christ. As someone shared the Gospel of God’s Grace with us, we should share it with others. This is actually the main purpose of Paul writing 2 Corinthians 5:20 to the Corinthians.

Paul continues in 2 Corinthians chapter 5: “[18] And all things are of God, who hath reconciled us to himself by Jesus Christ, and hath given to us the ministry of reconciliation; [19] To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation. [20] Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech you by us: we pray you in Christ’s stead, be ye reconciled to God. [21] For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.”

God the Father reconciled us to Himself by Jesus Christ. We were lost and going to hell, no faith in God’s Word, rebellious, vain in our thoughts, doing whatever we wanted, but God—before we were even born, before we could even sin—still sent Jesus Christ to Calvary’s cross. It is our privilege to share that Good News with others, to tell them that Father God offers to them in Jesus Christ a home in heaven, eternal life, unconditional love, total acceptance, unending mercy, unfathomable grace, on and on and on we could go listing the marvelous things in Christ! We have a “ministry,” “the ministry of reconciliation,” to tell others that God is not mad at them today. They can escape the wrath to come, the seven-year Tribulation, and the wrath to come after that, the lake of fire. They do not have to go to hell! What good news!

We read again in 2 Corinthians 5:19: “God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.” While we looked at this passage earlier, we will do so again. Ephesians 2:11-12 explains: “[11] Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands; [12] That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:” As stated earlier, there was a time when the God of the Bible dealt only with the nation Israel; at that time, the Gentiles were “without God in the world.”

Now, in this the Dispensation of Grace, Israel has lost that special position she once had (her fall is only temporarily, of course). Ephesians 2:13 continues, “But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.” Romans 11:15 supplements, “For if the casting away of them [Israel] be the reconciling of the world, what shall the receiving of them be, but life from the dead?” Today, as we mentioned earlier, there has been a dispensational reconciliation—all nations are equal before God today, and they all (not just Israel) can approach Him through Jesus Christ’s finished crosswork. By sending His only begotten Son to die for the world’s sins, God made the first move to reconcile mankind with Himself. Now, God urges each and every person to appropriate by faith the merits of that crosswork, that God and the individual be eternally united.

Stated once more, as Christians, it is our privilege to preach to others the Gospel of the Grace of God—the “word of reconciliation”—that Jesus Christ died for our sins, He was buried, and He rose again the third day (1 Corinthians 15:3-4). God has reconciled us to Himself, He has removed that hostility and anger that our sins generated in Him, and He has removed the racial barrier that He erected beginning with Abraham. Now, we are urged to trust His Son’s payment for those sins, that we be saved from those sins. Please understand that reconciliation is not salvation, but reconciliation makes salvation possible. Romans 10:10a says, “For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness.” To have Christ’s righteousness imputed (applied) to us, we must have heart faith, trust, complete reliance upon, that Jesus Christ paid the price for our sins, in full and forever. That forgiveness offered to us in Jesus Christ, that grace offered to us in Jesus Christ, that salvation offered to us in Jesus Christ, they will then be applied to us forever. Unless we appropriate them by faith, they will benefit us nothing. Unless we are “reconciled to God” by faith in Calvary’s crosswork, the reconciliation that God offers us will do nothing for us.

CONCLUSION

In 2 Corinthians 5:20 (“Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech you by us: we pray you in Christ’s stead, be ye reconciled to God”), Paul is reminding the Corinthians that, just as he had besought them to be reconciled to God (back in Acts chapter 18), they have the same Christian ministry to beseech others to be reconciled to God. They are to preach the same salvation message to lost people, that Paul had preached to them in Acts chapter 18 when they (the Corinthians) were lost people. That salvation message is found in 2 Corinthians 5:21: “For he [God the Father] hath made him [Jesus Christ] to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him [Christ].” It is this message that highlights the reconciliation God offers us in Jesus Christ, and how we urge you, dear reader, to tell others all about it!

Also see:
» Are lost people already forgiven?
» Can Christians lose their salvation?
» Do I have to repeat “the sinner’s prayer” to be saved?

What does “Forbid not to speak with tongues” mean?

WHAT DOES “FORBID NOT TO SPEAK WITH TONGUES” MEAN?

by Shawn Brasseaux

In this study, we will look at this puzzling verse (not just some of it, but all of it!), and we will allow God’s Holy Spirit to shed light on it for us. It is ever so important to not look at the Holy Bible using denominational eyeglasses—this is how the Body of Christ wound up in the confusing mess in which it currently finds itself! The Bible says what it means and means what it says, but we need to let it say what it says without forcing a denominational doctrine into the passage.

Those who believe that the supernatural gift of tongues is still operating today, claim that the Bible supports their doctrinal position. Years ago, a pastor of such a persuasion reminded me that I should “forbid not to speak with tongues” (1 Corinthians 14:39). Despite the many verses clearly against his religious practice, he did not have an ear to hear me quoting God’s precious Word; he was only willing to hear and follow the verses he liked (such as 1 Corinthians 14:39, in part). The man simply quoted that single verse to defend himself; after that, he said nothing and he refused to relinquish his denominational doctrine. By quoting that verse, he was telling me that God the Holy Spirit was still miraculously empowering Christians to speak languages they never formally learned (what is called “angelic languages” or “private prayer languages” in religion). He flippantly quoted 1 Corinthians 14:39 (in part) to me in order to discourage me from rebuking him for his error. Is 1 Corinthians 14:39 really giving credence to the modern-day tongues movement? We want to investigate that verse here.

As with anybody pushing a denominational system, they never quote an entire verse, just the portion of the verse that agrees with their theology. Thus, we should not be surprised to realize that those who quote 1 Corinthians 14:39 to defend their alleged “gift of tongues” never quote the rest of the verse. The part of the verse that they do not cite is the main point of the verse—to say the entire verse is to say too much and weaken their position and discredit what they are doing. Beloved, that is duplicitous, and whether intentionally or inadvertently, they are still mishandling God’s Word and still leading people astray using Scripture (of all books, they use God’s Word to deceive!).

Spiritual gifts were only temporary among members of the Church the Body of Christ. The closing verses of 1 Corinthians chapter 13 make it very plain that the spiritual gifts would operate only among the early church (for information about that, please see our study at the end of this article about “that which is perfect is come”). Regarding the gift of tongues, Paul only mentioned it in one section of his writings (1 Corinthians chapters 12-14)—part of his first epistle to Corinth. He began that section by saying that he did not want the Corinthian Christians to be ignorant concerning spiritual gifts (1 Corinthians 12:1)—that is precisely what much of Christendom is ignorant of today! These Christians in Corinth were very carnal, emotionally driven, given over to the desires of the fleshly (human) nature, people who were very selfish and childish and reproachful to the name of Jesus Christ. They did not know how to use spiritual gifts properly. When Paul wrote to them about the gift of tongues—40 verses (the fourteenth chapter of 1 Corinthians)—it was not a compliment. He did not write to them about their spirituality, but about their carnality—contrary to what you may hear today, speaking in tongues is not necessarily spiritual and, the “tongues” of today are not of the God of the Bible.

Considering the abuses regarding the gift of tongues, someone in Corinth could have wrongly concluded that they should totally repudiate anything and everything to do with any type of tongues experience, even those caused by God’s Holy Spirit. This is the best way to look at 1 Corinthians 14:39: “forbid not to speak with tongues.” Paul was telling the Corinthians not to abandon their spiritual gifts but rather not to abuse them—they were not to have an evil mind toward spiritual gifts such as the gift of tongues. They simply were to have a bad attitude toward using the spiritual gifts for their personal advantage, fabricating spiritual gifts so they could have emotional highs, counterfeiting God’s work so they could gain attention, and so on. But, there is more to the verse than that, and to get the full picture we need to look at the full verse.

First Corinthians 14:39 reads in its entirety: “Wherefore, brethren, covet to prophesy, and forbid not to speak with tongues.” Why does Paul tell them to “covet to prophesy?”

We read in the opening verses of 1 Corinthians chapter 14: “[1] Follow after charity, and desire spiritual gifts, but rather that ye may prophesy. [2] For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries. [3] But he that prophesieth speaketh unto men to edification, and exhortation, and comfort. [4] He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church. [5] I would that ye all spake with tongues but rather that ye prophesied: for greater is he that prophesieth than he that speaketh with tongues, except he interpret, that the church may receive edifying.”

Verses 12 and 13: “[12] Even so ye, forasmuch as ye are zealous of spiritual gifts, seek that ye may excel to the edifying of the church. [13] Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret.”

The Corinthians were very passionate, very worked up about spiritual gifts, very “zealous,” but they were going about it in the wrong manner. They were fervent, but they needed to focus their energy on something productive instead of being selfish. Paul told them to seek the assembly’s edification—they were to uplift others instead of themselves. Tongues was a spiritual gift misused to cause attention to be drawn to the speaker, and unless it was translated—that is, reduced to something intelligent—it was useless to the listeners. The Corinthians were urged not to go around babbling incoherently, but to pray that they would be able to interpret those unknown tongues (they were thus manifested as counterfeit if they could not be interpreted).

In the listing of the spiritual gifts in 1 Corinthians 12:28, the gift of tongues is listed last. The gift of prophecy is listed second. Prophesying, or preaching God’s Word before it was written down, was more edifying to the local assembly than someone speaking in tongues. That is what the Bible says; I am just repeating what God has already said about it in His Word. This is how we are to view 1 Corinthians 14:39: “Wherefore, brethren, covet to prophesy, and forbid not to speak with tongues.”

The Corinthians were urged rather to speak forth God’s Word and benefit the local assembly (1 Corinthians 14:1-5). Spiritual gifts were still operating at that time, and thus they were not to forbid those from exercising God’s gift of tongues. What Paul was saying was they needed to follow those directions in 1 Corinthians chapter 14 regarding speaking in tongues, or they were to be quiet and say nothing at all (verse 28).

Speaking in some strange language was not the gauge for spirituality, whether in the Corinthian church or in the church today: the Corinthians enjoyed the gift of tongues, and the Bible says they were “carnal,” “babes in Christ” (1 Corinthians 3:1-3), and not at all spiritual or mature. While it is commonly said that we need to “speak in angelic languages” to prove we are saved—to prove that we are filled God’s Spirit or to “manifest the Holy Ghost”—this is nothing more than religious tradition. According to the Holy Spirit Himself, true spirituality today in this the Dispensation of Grace is determined by whether or not someone listens to God’s instructions through Paul. The Bible says in 1 Corinthians 14:37-38, “[37] If any man think himself to be a prophet, or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord. [38] But if any man be ignorant, let him be ignorant.” If someone does not hearken unto the Apostle Paul’s writings, Romans through Philemon, they are denying Jesus Christ’s words to us today, and God’s Holy Spirit is not leading them! (That would describe 99 percent of the people in the world’s “Christian” pulpits!)

CONCLUSION

It is argued that if we forbid people to speak with tongues today, then we are limiting God and that we are opposing God’s work (see 1 Corinthians 14:39). However, we reply, this is assuming that God the Holy Spirit is involved in the modern-day tongues movement in the first place. If God the Holy Spirit is not dispensing spiritual gifts today—particularly the gift of tongues—and we forbid people to exercise their so-called “supernatural gift of tongues,” then we are not arguing against God because God is not doing that today anyway. If God is not working in these modern-day “tongue-talkers,” then we are opposing what they are doing in the flesh, and not at all challenging what God the Holy Spirit is doing (because, according to the verses in 1 Corinthians chapter 14, He is not the “spirit” operating in and through them!).

There is abundant Scriptural proof that the modern-day “gift of tongues” is not at all of the God of the Bible. It is of some other spirit, some other entity (frankly, it is man’s flesh working in tandem with Satan’s policy of evil!). No verse—not even a misquoted 1 Corinthians 14:39—can authenticate the modern-day tongues experience so prevalent in charismatic circles. They are abusing many Bible verses, and proving that they are not interested in doing God’s work, just interested in doing what they want to do to further their theological system. Beloved, may we guard ourselves against such error!

Also see:
» Should I speak or pray in tongues?
» What is the “that which is perfect is come” in 1 Corinthians 13:10?
» Could you explain Paul’s “Acts” ministry?

Why does the Bible say that Jesus was “slain and hanged on a tree?”

WHY DOES THE BIBLE SAY THAT JESUS WAS “SLAIN AND HANGED ON A TREE?”

by Shawn Brasseaux

When reading, the diligent Bible student will ask questions. Questions prompt a deeper and more involved reading. Acts 5:30 and Acts 10:39 have unusual language, but they convey a precious truth. The Scriptures say that Jesus died on the cross (Matthew 27:50; Mark 15:37; Luke 23:46; John 19:30), so why did the Holy Ghost through the Apostles indicate that Israel killed Jesus and then crucified Him (Acts 5:30; Acts 10:39)?

Notice, when preaching to the nation Israel’s religious leaders, the Apostle Peter and other apostles said in Acts 5:30, The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, whom ye slew and hanged on a tree. When preaching to Cornelius the Roman centurion in Acts 10:39, Peter declared, “And we are witnesses of all things which he did both in the land of the Jews, and in Jerusalem; whom they slew and hanged on a tree:” Why does Scripture twice say that Jesus was slain and then hanged on the cross? Why did these verses not say, “They hanged Jesus on a tree and slew him?” (Which would seem to be more accurate.) Moses provided clues for this strange wording, some 1,500 years earlier.

Deuteronomy 21:18-23 says, “[18] If a man have a stubborn and rebellious son, which will not obey the voice of his father, or the voice of his mother, and that, when they have chastened him, will not hearken unto them: [19] Then shall his father and his mother lay hold on him, and bring him out unto the elders of his city, and unto the gate of his place; [20] And they shall say unto the elders of his city, This our son is stubborn and rebellious, he will not obey our voice; he is a glutton, and a drunkard. [21] And all the men of his city shall stone him with stones, that he die: so shalt thou put evil away from among you; and all Israel shall hear, and fear. [22] And if a man have committed a sin worthy of death, and he be to be put to death, and thou hang him on a tree: [23] His body shall not remain all night upon the tree, but thou shalt in any wise bury him that day; (for he that is hanged is accursed of God;) that thy land be not defiled, which the LORD thy God giveth thee for an inheritance.”

Israel’s method of execution was stoning, but because she involved the Roman government, Jesus was put to death by crucifixion on a Roman cross. Just as a rebellious son was to be stoned and then hanged on a tree in ancient Israel, Israel treated Jesus as a rebellious son, a heretic and imposter, a blasphemer, and hung Him on a tree (Galatians 3:13, “Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree:”). Simply put, in their minds, they had “killed” Him long before they hung Him on Calvary. They were just displaying Him for all to see and humiliate Him, to signify that He was cursed of God.

Also see:
» Did Jesus suffer for our sins in hell? (LINK TEMPORARILY UNAVAILABLE)
» How could Jesus Christ’s death on Calvary sufficiently pay for our sins? (LINK TEMPORARILY UNAVAILABLE)
» Was Jesus Christ really crucified on Friday?