Category Archives: BIBLE VERSIONS AND MANUSCRIPTS

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, BIBLE VERSIONS AND MANUSCRIPTS, DISPENSATIONAL BIBLE STUDY, Who are the prophets of Romans 16:26?, Who are the prophets of Romans 16:26?, Who are the prophets of Romans 16:26?

Who are the prophets of Romans 16:26?

WHO ARE THE PROPHETS OF ROMANS 16:26?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Romans 16:25-26 says: “[25] Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began, [26] But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith….” What are “the scriptures of the prophets” in verse 26? Are they the “Old Testament” Scriptures, the “prophetic Scriptures?” Who are these prophets? Are they “Old Testament” prophets? Let us look at God’s Holy Word for the answer!

The phrase “the scriptures of the prophets” (Romans 16:26), while commonly assumed to be the “Old Testament” prophets, actually refers to the prophets in the Church the Body of Christ. We read of them in Ephesians 4:7-12: “[7] But unto every one of us is given grace according to the measure of the gift of Christ. [8] Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men. [9] (Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth? [10] He that descended is the same also that ascended up far above all heavens, that he might fill all things.) [11] And he gave some, apostles; and some, prophets; and some, evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers; [12] For the perfecting of the saints, for the work of the ministry, for the edifying of the body of Christ….”

Remember, after His ascension “far above all heavens,” Christ gave gifts to men in the Body of Christ—apostles, prophets, evangelists, pastors, and teachers (verse 11). These gifts were given during the Acts period. They would certainly not be the 12 Apostles or the Old Testament Prophets of Israel’s program, for these people received their spiritual gifts before the ascension, of course. Paul, according to Romans 11:13, would be the first apostle of Ephesians 4:7-12. There were other (secondary) apostles related to and in the Body of Christ. In addition, there were Body-of-Christ prophets, Body-of-Christ evangelists, Body-of-Christ pastors, and Body-of-Christ teachers. The prophets in the Body of Christ are also discussed in Ephesians 2:20, Ephesians 3:5, and 1 Corinthians 12:28-29.

The Body-of-Christ prophets evidently identified, assembled, and copied Scripture, as we read: “If any man think himself to be a prophet, or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord” (1 Corinthians 14:37). In other words, these Body-of-Christ prophets were copying the whole Bible. “The scriptures of the prophets” would be all of the Bible, but more specifically, all the Bible in light of Pauline doctrine (that Pauline truth being “kept secret,” according to Romans 16:25, but now revealed through Paul’s ministry, verse 26).

God wants us to use the entire Bible, provided that we remember to use it “rightly divided” (2 Timothy 2:15)—understanding the mystery and keeping it separate from prophecy. Back to Romans 16:25-26: “[25] Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began, [26] But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith….” Notice the order in these two verses. God will “stablish,” or stabilize, us in the inner man using three steps of edification: (1) “My [or, Paul’s] gospel,” (2) “The preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery;” and (3) “The Scriptures of the prophets.” This is actually how Paul’s epistles are laid out in the canon of Scripture.

Paul’s Gospel is laid out clearly in Romans, as well as in (the next three Books) 1 & 2 Corinthians and Galatians. The preaching of Jesus Christ according to the mystery would be the next three Epistles—Ephesians, Philippians, and Colossians. The Scriptures of the prophets would relate to Paul’s two Thessalonian epistles—since they deal with non-Pauline truths (prophecy) and how those non-Pauline truths are not to be combined with Pauline truths. The remaining four Pauline Books—1 & 2 Timothy, Titus, and Philemon—are the congregational/assembly doctrine. They are thus often called the “Pastoral Epistles.”

In light of 1 Corinthians 14:37, prophets in the Body of Christ identified, collected/collated, and copied the Scriptures. (In Israel’s program, a prophet was usually one who foretold the future; however, a Body-of-Christ prophet had a different role.) The Body-of-Christ prophets were not copying merely Paul’s epistles though. They were copying all of Scripture, allowing us to have manuscript copies of all 66 of the Bible Books even today. When Paul referred to prophecy in the two Books of Thessalonians, he was encouraging his audience to look at the non-Pauline Bible Books for further details. The Scriptures of the prophets allow us to appreciate/grasp all of the Bible: we see how the rest of the Bible fits with Paul’s epistles and how Paul’s epistles fit with the non-Pauline Bible Books. Remember, all Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and all of it is profitable (2 Timothy 3:16-17), provided we use it “rightly divided” (2 Timothy 2:15).

CONCLUSION

“The scriptures of the prophets” of Romans 16:26 refers to all of the Bible Books in light of Pauline doctrine. The Body-of-Christ prophets identified, collected/collated, and copied all Bible Books into one group so they could all be studied in light of the final divine revelation given to Paul (see Colossians 1:24-29; cf. Ephesians 1:8-11). Now we can better understand what is going on with Romans 16:25-26 as a whole. Once we get beyond the basics of Christianity (Paul’s Gospel, the Gospel of Grace), then we can mature into the preaching of Jesus Christ according to the revelation of the mystery. When we come to that point in our spiritual maturity, then we can grasp how all of that relates to the rest of the Bible.

SUPPLEMENTAL: WHEN ROMANS 16:26 IS PERVERTED

In an attempt to diminish and/or deny Paul’s special revelations from Jesus Christ, some people (either deliberately or inadvertently) drop the conjunction “and” that precedes “by the scriptures of the prophets.” Not only is this erroneous teaching found in speech; people have actually changed the English Bibles because they did not know how to handle this dispensational passage. The modern English versions omit the “and” in the KJV reading “and by the scriptures of the prophets.” By doing so, they make the modern English versions say that Paul’s mystery (secret) was found outside of Paul’s writings. They say the “prophetic Scriptures,” or the “Old Testament” prophets, revealed the mystery. This is a flat-out lie, contradicting other verses such as those found in Colossians chapter 1 and Ephesians chapter 3. (Since they attack dispensational precepts—the fundamentals of proper Bible study—these perverted modern English versions are dangerous and should be avoided! Friend, you should stick with the King James Bible!)

Notice the following English versions and how they handle Romans 16:26 in a most dishonest manner. They cause their readers to conclude that the Apostle Paul’s teachings were not at all special or formerly hid in God. These translators had no idea what they were doing, and have completely destroyed the original meaning of Romans 16:26:

  • Amplified Bible: “but now has been disclosed and through the prophetic Scriptures has been made known to all the nations, according to the commandment of the eternal God, leading them to obedience to the faith,”
  • Contemporary English Version: “but now at last it has been told. The eternal God commanded his prophets to write about the good news, so that all nations would obey and have faith.”
  • Douay-Rheims American (Roman Catholic) Bible: “(Which now is made manifest by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the precept of the eternal God, for the obedience of faith,) known among all nations;”
  • English Standard Version: “but has now been disclosed and through the prophetic writings has been made known to all nations, according to the command of the eternal God, to bring about the obedience of faith—“
  • Holman Christian Standard Bible: “but now revealed and made known through the prophetic Scriptures, according to the command of the eternal God to advance the obedience of faith among all nations—”
  • Living Bible: “But now as the prophets foretold and as God commands, this message is being preached everywhere, so that people all around the world will have faith in Christ and obey him.
  • The Message: “as revealed in the mystery kept secret for so long but now an open book through the prophetic Scriptures. All the nations of the world can now know the truth and be brought into obedient belief,”
  • New Century Version: “It has been made clear through the writings of the prophets. And by the command of the eternal God it is made known to all nations that they might believe and obey.”
  • New International Version: “but now revealed and made known through the prophetic writings by the command of the eternal God, so that all the Gentiles might come to the obedience that comes from faith—”
  • New Living Translation: “But now as the prophets foretold and as the eternal God has commanded, this message is made known to all Gentiles everywhere, so that they too might believe and obey him.”
  • New Revised Standard Version: “but is now disclosed, and through the prophetic writings is made known to all the Gentiles, according to the command of the eternal God, to bring about the obedience of faith—”
  • Revised Standard Version: “but is now disclosed and through the prophetic writings is made known to all nations, according to the command of the eternal God, to bring about the obedience of faith—”

We read Romans 16:25-26 in the King James Bible again: “Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began, But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith….”

It is important that we note “AND by the scriptures of the prophets” is the original and inspired reading. The mystery is not declared by the Old Testament prophets or by the “prophetic Scriptures.” We must understand that the mystery is revealed only by Paul’s epistles, Romans through Philemon (cf. Ephesians 3:1-11; Colossians 1:24-29). Romans 16:25-26 is saying that God desires to build us up with three elements: (1) Paul’s Gospel, (2) The preaching of Jesus Christ according to the revelation of the mystery, and (3) The Scriptures of the prophets. It is important that we not misread Romans 16:25-26. Combining points 2 and 3 into one thought—namely, ignoring Paul’s special ministry—is the reason why there is confusion among Bible versions, translators, teachers, preachers, and students.

Also see:
» What is dispensational Bible study?
» Did Peter and Paul preach the same Gospel?
» Can you compare and contrast Peter’s ministry and Paul’s ministry?

BIBLE VERSIONS AND MANUSCRIPTS, What does “fetch a compass” mean?

What does “fetch a compass” mean?

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WHAT DOES “FETCH A COMPASS” MEAN?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Our 1611 (King James) Bible translators used the phrase “fetch a compass” five times. The expression is rarely, if ever, heard in contemporary English. Hence, it can make Bible study a bit tricky. Nevertheless, we need not be intimidated. (In fact, we already know a similar word to use as a clue to figure out its definition.) Exactly what does “fetch a compass” mean? To the Scriptures we go!

Notice the five occurrences of the expression in the Authorized Version:

  • Numbers 34:5: “And the border shall fetch a compass from Azmon unto the river of Egypt, and the goings out of it shall be at the sea.”
  • Joshua 15:3: “And it went out to the south side to Maaleh-acrabbim, and passed along to Zin, and ascended up on the south side unto Kadesh-barnea, and passed along to Hezron, and went up to Adar, and fetched a compass to Karkaa:”
  • 2 Samuel 5:23: “And when David enquired of the LORD, he said, Thou shalt not go up; but fetch a compass behind them, and come upon them over against the mulberry trees.”
  • 2 Kings 3:9: “So the king of Israel went, and the king of Judah, and the king of Edom: and they fetched a compass of seven days’ journey: and there was no water for the host, and for the cattle that followed them.”
  • Acts 28:13: “And from thence we fetched a compass, and came to Rhegium: and after one day the south wind blew, and we came the next day to Puteoli:”

From the above verses, we learn that “fetch a compass” is descriptive of: (#1) borders (Numbers 34:5; Joshua 15:3), and (#2) routes of travel (2 Samuel 5:23; 2 Kings 3:9; Acts 28:13). When we read of “fetch a compass,” we should immediately think of encompass (same idea). The notion of “fetch a compass” is simply “make a circuit, go partly around, march or walk around, surround, loop around, go about to, turn around.” The Greek word rendered “fetched a compass” in Acts 28:13 further reinforces this idea. It is perierchomai, taken from peri– meaning “around” (as in perimeter, “distance around something”), and erchomai meaning “come, go.” To wit, perierchomai literally means “go around.”

By the way, what in the world does “fetch” have to do with any of this? We usually think of “fetch” as the retrieval of something—such as telling a dog to go “fetch a stick.” “Fetch” as it sits in “fetch a compass” means something else: it means “to move or maneuver,” as in traveling. “Fetch a compass” then literally means “travel a circuit,” “move in a loop,” “curve or turn about.” Simple!

Also see:
» What does the Bible mean “rude in speech?”
» What does “a land flowing with milk and honey” mean?
» What does “kick against the pricks” mean?

BIBLE VERSIONS AND MANUSCRIPTS, GOD, Is Jesus Christ God’s “one and only Son” or “only begotten Son?”, Is Jesus Christ God’s “one and only Son” or “only begotten Son?”

Is Jesus Christ God’s “one and only Son” or “only begotten Son?”

IS JESUS CHRIST GOD’S “ONE AND ONLY SON” OR “ONLY BEGOTTEN SON?”

by Shawn Brasseaux

One of the disadvantages of modern English Bibles is that they tremendously alter the way English-speaking Christians think and converse. Phrases that have been associated with Christianity for decades or centuries have been dropped because they have been reworded. Consequently, many Christians use new Bible terms and employ new phrases because they are using new “bibles.” They are saying things differently than the standard way Christians have stated biblical teachings for centuries (this allows for intentional, and even deliberate, doctrinal modifications). With modern English versions now competing with the 405-year-old King James Bible, there is no longer a common Christian voice. Every church member is now quoting from his or her own “preferred” Bible translation. Remember, to obtain a copyright, translators of all modern English versions must make substantial word changes to the Bible text. With every new translation comes a further weakening of the one Christian voice God intended. Just listen to Christian people as they all read the same verse from their favorite version—it is nothing but convolution and confusion!

Take the issue of calling Jesus Christ “God’s one and only Son” (modern versions) versus “God’s only begotten Son” (King James Bible). You used to hear and read “God’s only begotten Son” in Christian preaching and literature. Now, you usually hear and read “God’s only and one Son.” On the surface, this seems insignificant. However, it is a serious problem. Firstly, some Bible readers are calling Jesus one thing and other Bible readers are calling Him something else. Secondly… well… let us just say it communicates a major doctrinal error we must skillfully expose and swiftly correct!

The expression “only begotten” is the Greek word monogenes, which literally means, “only generated.” It appears six times in the King James Bible—John 1:14, John 1:18, John 3:16, John 3:18, Hebrews 11:17, and 1 John 4:9. The one in Hebrews is about Isaac; the other five refer to Jesus Christ. We will look briefly at those verses now:

  • John 1:14: “And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.”
  • John 1:18: “No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.”
  • John 3:16: “For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.”
  • John 3:18: “He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.”
  • Hebrews 11:17: “By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten son,”
  • 1 John 4:9: “In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him.

The New International Version (NIV), which is perhaps the most popular modern English “bible” today, completely eliminates “begotten” from the above verses. Rather than reading “God’s only begotten Son,” it says “God’s one and only Son.” The same is true of other popular modern translations—English Standard Version (ESV), Contemporary English Version (CEV), Holman Christian Standard Bible (HCSB), The Message (MSG), New Living Translation (NLT), Revised Standard Version (RSV), New Revised Standard Version (NRSV), and New American (Catholic) Bible (NAB). In all fairness, it should be pointed out that the New American Standard Bible (NASB), New King James Version (NKJV), and American Standard Version (ASV), keep the phrase “only begotten” in all five verses (agreeing with the King James Bible). Although, in John 1:18, the NASB has the phrase “only begotten God” rather than “only begotten Son,” thereby supporting the ancient Arian heresy that Jesus was some “created God!”

So, friend, I bet you are wondering why we could not call the Lord Jesus merely “God’s one and only Son?” It is technically incorrect—especially for a so-called “bible”—to call Jesus “God’s one and only Son.” God has many sons according to the Bible (no matter what version you use!). For example, angels are called “the sons of God” (Job 38:7). Adam, the first man, being a direct creation of God, is called “the son of God” (Luke 3:38). In John 1:12, we read about believing Jews who became “the sons of God.” We members of the Church the Body of Christ are called “the sons of God” (Romans 8:14). See, friend, God has millions of “sons.” It is therefore foolish when so-called “educated” Bible translators call the Lord Jesus “God’s one and only Son.” They are outright contradicting these verses—even in their own translations! Moreover, they are demonstrating their Bible ignorance in yet another manner.

Why is the term “begotten” so important? Why should we use the King James Bible expression “the only begotten Son of God?” “Begotten” is a unique title; thus, to eliminate it is to diminish the Lord Jesus Christ’s special status as “begotten.” Why is “begotten” so important when referring to Him? “Begat” means “to give life to.” The first 16 verses of Matthew chapter 1 easily demonstrate this. You can read about numerous men fathering sons. For example, verse 2 says: “Abraham begat Isaac; and Isaac begat Jacob; and Jacob begat Judas and his brethren….” This verb “begat” is related to the adjective “begotten.”

When the King James Bible calls Jesus Christ “God’s only begotten Son” in the Book of John and in the Book of 1 John, it links back to an Old Testament concept found in the Book of Psalms. If we remove “begotten,” as the modern English versions have done, then we lose the connection to Psalm 2:7, which says: “I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.”

Now, when did Jesus Christ become the “only begotten Son of God?” When was Psalm 2:7 fulfilled? The common assumption is when He was born in Bethlehem of Judaea. However, the Bible teaches something else. Acts 13:33-34 makes the truth quite plain: “[33] God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee. [34] And as concerning that he raised him up from the dead, now no more to return to corruption, he said on this wise, I will give you the sure mercies of David.” According to the Apostle Paul, led by the Holy Spirit to preach Acts 13:33-34, Psalm 2:7 is properly interpreted as being fulfilled at Jesus Christ’s resurrection. It was at the resurrection that Father God gave Jesus life—He became God’s “only begotten Son” at His resurrection in the tomb. For reinforcement, we look at some auxiliary verses.

  • Hebrews 5:5: “So also Christ glorified not himself to be made an high priest; but he that said unto him, Thou art my Son, to day have I begotten” (According to the writer of the Book of Hebrews, Father God resurrected Jesus in order to ordain Him as Israel’s high priest.)
  • Revelation 1:5: “And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood….” (The expression “first begotten of the dead” again tells us that “begotten” is connected to resurrection. “First begotten” is defined even further in Colossians 1:18, which we appeal to next.)
  • Colossians 1:18: “And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.” (God the Son, Christ Jesus, is called “the firstborn from the dead” because His resurrection is the first of many subsequent resurrections.)

CONCLUSION

Father God has many sons, but He has one “only begotten Son.” It is therefore incorrect to call Jesus “God’s one and only Son” as some modern English versions do. The Lord Jesus Christ is rightly called in the King James Bible, “the only begotten Son of God.” Furthermore, the word “begotten” refers to His resurrection, actually, not His birth in Bethlehem as often supposed (cf. Acts 13:33-34). Jesus Christ is the first son that Father God has raised from the dead: He is the “firstborn from the dead” and “first begotten of the dead” in the sense that there are more sons to follow Him in resurrection. (This is why Christ is called “the firstfruits” of resurrection in 1 Corinthians 15:23. Firstfruits are the few plants that ripen before the main harvest matures.) Father God resurrected Jesus Christ. He will resurrect Israel’s believing remnant one day. He will also resurrect us the Church the Body of Christ one day. All of these sons of God are one giant line of resurrected beings in Father God’s purpose and plan. As of right now though, Jesus Christ is “the only begotten Son of God.” Leave the King James Bible text alone and just believe it and rejoice in its simple truths!

Saints, please remember us in your monthly giving. You can donate securely here: https://www.paypal.me/ShawnBrasseaux, or email me at arcministries@gmail.com. Do not forget about Bible Q&A booklets for sale at https://arcgraceministries.org/in-print/booklets-bible-q-a/. Thanks to all who give to and pray for us! 🙂

Also see:
» What does God mean, “I am Alpha and Omega?”
» What does “Lord of Sabaoth” mean?
» Did Jesus “empty Himself?”

BIBLE VERSIONS AND MANUSCRIPTS, JUST ASKING / CURIOUS QUESTIONS, What does the King James Bible mean—“reins?”, What does the King James Bible mean—“reins?”

What does the King James Bible mean—“reins?”

WHAT DOES THE KING JAMES BIBLE MEAN—“REINS?”

by Shawn Brasseaux

On 15 occasions, the Authorized Version makes reference to “reins.” Most of these are found in the “Old Testament.” As a brief introduction, we look at few of a couple of those verses right now. Psalm 7:9 says: “Oh let the wickedness of the wicked come to an end; but establish the just: for the righteous God trieth the hearts and reins.” And, Jeremiah 20:12: “But, O LORD of hosts, that triest the righteous, and seest the reins and the heart, let me see thy vengeance on them: for unto thee have I opened my cause.” What are such “reins?” Why this curious word?

The Hebrew word usually rendered “reins” is כִּלְיָה, or kilyah (Strong’s #H3629). Kilyah appears 31 times in the Hebrew Bible. Our 1611 translators translated it as “kidneys” 18 times and “reins” 13 times. (Another Hebrew word—חָלָץ, or chalats [Strong’s #H2504]—is rendered “reins” in Isaiah 11:5. This gives a total of 14 Old Testament usages of “reins.”) The word “kidneys” is generally restricted to the literal, fleshly organs of sacrificial animals offered in Judaism—Exodus 29:13, Exodus 29:22, Leviticus 3:4, Leviticus 3:10, Leviticus 3:15, Leviticus 4:9, Leviticus 7:4, Leviticus 8:16, Leviticus 8:25, Leviticus 9:10, and Leviticus 9:19. There are two figurative usages of “kidneys” in Deuteronomy 32:14 and Isaiah 34:6. “Reins” in the Greek New Testament is νεφρός, or nephros, (Strong’s #G3510). It appears only once—Revelation 2:23.

Now, to the English word. “Reins” is a form of the Middle English reines, reenes; which was derived from the Old French reins; which was taken from the Latin rēnēs meaning “kidneys, loins” (plural). Even today, modern-day medical terms reflect the Greek, Latin, French, and English etymologies. Have you ever heard of renal failure—the kidney(s) malfunctioning? The medical study of kidney diseases is called nephrology—reflecting the Greek word, of course. Medical science dealing with the function of kidneys is known as renal physiology. Now that we know how “kidneys” and “reins” are connected, how should we handle the King James verses that say God is interested in seeing and knowing our “reins?” Is God really concerned with our kidneys?

In ancient times, kidneys (hidden inside our torso, or loins) were assumed to be the seat of our emotions, feelings, and affections. “Reins” is related to our literal kidneys. However, “reins” can also be used figuratively in reference to our innermost component (again, emotions, feelings, affections; mind). For the record, Strong’s Concordance has the following definition for the Hebrew word kilyah (#H3629): “feminine of H3627 (only in the plural); a kidney (as an essential organ); figuratively, the mind (as the interior self):—kidneys, reins.” Strong’s defines the Greek word nephros (#G3510) as: “of uncertain affinity; a kidney (plural), i.e. (figuratively) the inmost mind:—reins.”

The “reins,” are actually the mind, rather than the heart (another part of our innermost being), since some verses (see below) use both “reins” and “heart.” However, the King James Bible translators are not wrong in using “reins” to refer to something other than literal kidneys. They are using the word in a figurative sense to indicate the mind, as you can now see for yourself.

  • Job 16:13: “His archers compass me round about, he cleaveth my reins asunder, and doth not spare; he poureth out my gall upon the ground.”
  • Job 19:27: “Whom I shall see for myself, and mine eyes shall behold, and not another; though my reins be consumed within me.”
  • Psalm 7:9: “Oh let the wickedness of the wicked come to an end; but establish the just: for the righteous God trieth the hearts and reins.”
  • Psalm 16:7: “I will bless the LORD, who hath given me counsel: my reins also instruct me in the night seasons.”
  • Psalm 26:2: “Examine me, O LORD, and prove me; try my reins and my heart.”
  • Psalm 73:21: “Thus my heart was grieved, and I was pricked in my reins.”
  • Psalm 139:13: “For thou hast possessed my reins: thou hast covered me in my mother’s womb.”
  • Proverbs 23:16: “Yea, my reins shall rejoice, when thy lips speak right things.”
  • Isaiah 11:5: “And righteousness shall be the girdle of his loins, and faithfulness the girdle of his reins.” (Jesus Christ as He reigns in the Millennium!)
  • Jeremiah 11:20: “But, O LORD of hosts, that judgest righteously, that triest the reins and the heart, let me see thy vengeance on them: for unto thee have I revealed my cause.”
  • Jeremiah 12:2: “Thou hast planted them, yea, they have taken root: they grow, yea, they bring forth fruit: thou art near in their mouth, and far from their reins.”
  • Jeremiah 17:10: “I the LORD search the heart, I try the reins, even to give every man according to his ways, and according to the fruit of his doings.”
  • Jeremiah 20:12: “But, O LORD of hosts, that triest the righteous, and seest the reins and the heart, let me see thy vengeance on them: for unto thee have I opened my cause.”
  • Lamentations 3:13: “He hath caused the arrows of his quiver to enter into my reins.”
  • Revelation 2:23: “And I will kill her children with death; and all the churches shall know that I am he which searcheth the reins and hearts: and I will give unto every one of you according to your works.”

Also see:
» What is “the foolishness of God” in 1 Corinthians 1:25?
» Are we created in “the image of God?”
» What are “phylacteries?”

BIBLE VERSIONS AND MANUSCRIPTS, Did Jesus “empty” Himself?, Did Jesus “empty” Himself?, GOD

Did Jesus “empty” Himself?

DID JESUS “EMPTY” HIMSELF?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Philippians 2:7 reads in the King James Bible: “But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:” Some modern versions read Jesus “emptied himself” in the place of “made himself of no reputation.” Why does this matter?

THE MODERN VERSIONS

The Greek word rendered “made himself of no reputation” in our King James Bible is handled elsewhere.

  • “emptied himself” (American Standard Version, Amplified Version, English Standard Version, Holman Christian Standard Bible, New American Standard Bible, New Revised Standard Version, Revised Standard Version, Roman Catholic New American Bible, and Jehovah’s Witness New World Translation).
  • “made Himself of no reputation” (21st Century King James Version, New King James Version).
  • “he gave up everything” (Contemporary English Version).
  • “laid aside his mighty power and glory” (Living Bible).
  • “he gave up his place with God” (New Century Version).
  • “he made himself nothing” (New International Version).
  • “he gave up his divine privileges” (New Living Translation).
  • “but He poured Himself out to fill a vessel brand new” (The Voice).

As you can see, these modern versions are a slippery theological slope. The majority of them want Philippians 2:7 to say Jesus “emptied himself.” Note that even the Jehovah’s Witness version reads this way.

It should be noted that Amplified Bible’s translators carefully inserts bracketed comments lest their wording confuse: “but emptied Himself [without renouncing or diminishing His deity, but only temporarily giving up the outward expression of divine equality and His rightful dignity] by assuming the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men [He became completely human but was without sin, being fully God and fully man].” Of course, had they just left “made himself of no reputation” alone, it would be unnecessary to add the bracketed words “without renouncing or diminishing His deity, but only temporarily giving up the outward expression of divine equality and His rightful dignity.”

The word (kenoo) “he made himself of no reputation” means while Jesus never quit being God, He did not go around demanding people serve Him. He was not the issue. He did not make His reputation as God the issue. As the perfect Man, He had come to serve God the Father. He was equal to God the Father (verse 6) but He chose not to exercise the right of being served as God would be served. Rather than issuing commands (as God), He obeyed them (as Man).

The Bible says in Matthew 20:25-28: “[25] But Jesus called them unto him, and said, Ye know that the princes of the Gentiles exercise dominion over them, and they that are great exercise authority upon them. [26] But it shall not be so among you: but whosoever will be great among you, let him be your minister; [27] And whosoever will be chief among you, let him be your servant: [28] Even as the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom for many.”

As God, Jesus had a reputation. But He did not make that an issue when He became a Man. Rather, He submitted to His Heavenly Father. “O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt…. O my Father, if this cup may not pass away from me, except I drink it, thy will be done” (Matthew 26:39,42). As we would say, He did not “go around strutting His stuff.” He did not walk about with a vain, pompous bearing, head held high and chest sticking out, expecting to impress others.

Philippians chapter 2: “[5] Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: [6] Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: [7] But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: [8] And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.”

Jesus Christ did not “empty himself” as some modern English Bible translations suggest. That would be heresy! Jesus could not stop being who He was (His first nature was that He was God). Friend, you cannot change your nature. However, you can act contrary to your nature. This is what Jesus did. It was not Jesus’ nature to behave as a Man, for He was God. However, He added a new nature to Himself—a human nature—so He could behave as a man. Thus, Jesus had two natures: He was fully God, and, in addition, fully Man. “For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily” (Colossians 2:9). “For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus” (1 Timothy 2:5).

Second Corinthians 8:9 summarizes: “For ye know the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ, that, though he was rich, yet for your sakes he became poor, that ye through his poverty might be rich.”

Also see:
» Is the Trinity/Godhead a Scriptural teaching?
» Can Jews who believe in God, the Father, but who reject Jesus, be saved from eternal damnation?
» Is the Holy Spirit a Person or a force?

BIBLE VERSIONS AND MANUSCRIPTS, Is the King James word “borrow” a “mistranslation” in Exodus 3:22?

Is the King James word “borrow” a “mistranslation” in Exodus 3:22?

IS THE KING JAMES WORD “BORROW” A “MISTRANSLATION” IN EXODUS 3:22?

by Shawn Brasseaux

Notice the following three verses appearing in the King James Bible:

  • Exodus 3:22: “But every woman shall borrow of her neighbour, and of her that sojourneth in her house, jewels of silver, and jewels of gold, and raiment: and ye shall put them upon your sons, and upon your daughters; and ye shall spoil the Egyptians.”
  • Exodus 11:2: “Speak now in the ears of the people, and let every man borrow of his neighbour, and every woman of her neighbour, jewels of silver and jewels of gold.”
  • Exodus 12:35: “And the children of Israel did according to the word of Moses; and they borrowed of the Egyptians jewels of silver, and jewels of gold, and raiment:”

In the three instances above, the Jews “borrowed” from the Egyptians. King James Bible critics—always looking for any reason to gripe—say “borrow” is a “poor translation” or “wrong word.” They say it should read “ask.” According to them, the word “borrow” implies a temporary loan, and this would be impossible because we all know the Jews left Egypt, never returning the Egyptians’ possessions. So, we are now faced with two important questions. Have the King James Bible critics finally found an error? Or, is “borrow” a correct verb? Let us study the Bible to find out!

Read the following words from one Bible teacher who shares a common anti-KJV attitude: “In the King James the word is ‘borrowed’ and that is unfortunate, because when you borrow, what are you supposed to do? Give it back, and God never intended that. So, the word ‘borrowed’ should be ‘asked,’ and is in many translations.” These “many translations” he touts here are actually the modern English versions. Those books are marketed as “superior” and “improvements” to the King James Bible. Before we deal with Exodus and those three references to borrowing, it would do us well to remind ourselves of English Bible translation history.

THE ENGLISH BIBLE SINCE 1881, IN BRIEF

Whether or not they realize it, all church members have been conditioned—or trained—to question and change the wording of the King James Bible to some extent. This is a result of Satan successfully introducing (corrupt) human reasoning into “Christian” educational systems. Friends, this is nothing new. The Devil has been attacking God’s Word relentlessly ever since Genesis chapter 3. Still, when it comes to the history of the English Bible, the battle has intensified in the last 135 years.

What makes 1881 such an important date is that it was when the Revised Version was first published in Great Britain. It was a “new translation” of a “new Greek text” based on the “oldest and best Bible manuscripts.” This New Testament (Old Testament was released in 1885) was actually an effort to challenge and eliminate the 1611 King James Bible from British Christianity. Roman Catholic Bible scholars, and their sympathizing Protestant colleagues, were tired of the 270-year-old “Protestant” Authorized Version (King James Bible). The 1881 Revised Version would hopefully replace it, allowing Roman Catholicism to regain its place in British churches and Bible schools. In order to boost the popularity of the Revised Version, the King James Bible was labeled “old,” “unscholarly,” and “riddled with errors.” (Sound familiar?!) What the general public did not know—and still does not know today—was that the Revised Version was a corruption of the King James Bible and not a correction of it! How so? The Revised Version was based on the manuscripts the Authorized Version translators had indeed known about nearly three centuries earlier but had rejected as being depraved and unreliable!!

What very few people know, even today, is that this—the late 19th century, not the 20th century—is actually where modern English versions began. Furthermore, very few people today are told what the Bible versions issue really involves. It is not about one set of Bible manuscripts being updated into modern English. It is all about an entirely different set of Bible manuscripts being brought into modern English. The King James Bible reads differently from the modern versions, not simply because of its older English, but because it and the modern versions are based on different manuscripts! Nearly every English Bible produced since 1881 has been influenced by these perverted “Alexandrian manuscripts and philosophies.” The King James Bible, on the other hand, was rendered from Antiochian manuscripts using correct translation methods (right text correctly translated). Another fact also withheld from the public is that the Alexandrian manuscripts are few in number and actually contradict each other. The King James manuscripts are in the thousands—the majority of existing manuscripts—and they are in very close agreement with each other.

For the last 135 years, vain human philosophy has increasingly dominated Christian thinking. With scholarship being infiltrated, Bible School materials and seminary curriculums reflect the Alexandrian textual ideas. Graduates of these schools—the so-called “higher” Christian thinking—are trained to believe three basic concepts: (1) there is no perfect Bible today, (2) the closest readings we have to the original manuscripts are in the Alexandrian Text not in the King James text, and (3) God will use their theological education to “refine” and “purify” the deficiencies of the Alexandrian Text. They are told that the King James Bible and its underlying manuscripts are “late,” “unscholarly,” and of no real authority. After being taught to argue with the King James Bible, cause people to doubt it, they graduate and proceed to lead our churches and write new “Christian” literature. The unsuspecting laymen will quote those anti-KJV commentaries, devotionals, books, and versions, deceived into thinking they are helping the Bible student when they are actually harming him or her by introducing unbelief and heresy!

The aforementioned Bible College and seminary graduates are eventually appointed to sit on translation committees of new Bible versions. While they may not agree on every point of doctrine, they share one idea—the King James Bible text is wrong, it needs to be improved, and thus the Alexandrian Text is to be preferred over the King James Majority Text. Now we understand why there is a constant push for other modern versions. They are operating under the assumption they are getting closer to the original Bible wording. In reality, they are deceived, and getting further from the truth!

During the last century, between 100 and 200 modern English versions—all based on that non-KJV, faulty 1881 Greek New Testament—have entered the Christian market and have been purchased by the well-intended, but ill-informed, public. This Greek New Testament and its resultant English translations gave more voice to the frequent anti-KJV remarks we read and hear even today (recall our remarks at the beginning of this study). When people offer “better” readings than what we find in the King James Bible, they are echoing the perverted teachings stretching back centuries, manuscript readings the Church the Body of Christ rejected as worthless, textual data the 1611 King James translators also refused to use. It is most serious!

Friend, here is what you need to know. Whenever you hear anyone talking about the King James Bible being wrong, you should outright dismiss him or her as knowing nothing about which he or she speaks. Such people are nothing more than Bible slanderers, repeating the nonsense they have heard others say. The King James Bible is right, and they can sulk and pout all they want. God’s Word is right and they are wrong. Period. They need to be quiet and go study their Bible before they start talking about it! They need to believe the Bible and stop discouraging others from believing it!

THE KING JAMES BIBLE; EXODUS 3:22, EXODUS 11:2, AND EXODUS 12:35; AND “BORROW”

According to Dictionary.com, the first definition of “borrow” is as follows: “to take or obtain with the promise to return the same or an equivalent.” A simple sentence is provided to demonstrate that sense: “Our neighbor borrowed my lawn mower.” This is the only sense of the word that the King James Bible critics evidently know. (Refer to the Bible teacher’s comments we started with—he claimed there was only one definition for “borrow.”) But, pay close attention here. Lexicographers—people who study languages and words professionally—agree “borrow” has a second meaning: “to use, appropriate, or introduce from another source or from a foreign source.” The dictionary provides two examples of this usage: “to borrow an idea from the opposition; to borrow a word from French.”

I would really like to know how the King James Bible critics would handle the phrase, “The English language is rich because it borrows many words from various other tongues.” Of course, they will see nothing with this word “borrows.” (Therefore, surely, they can be just a tad lenient on the King James translators for using the word in the same manner!) “Borrow” here, as well as in Exodus, is not the idea of temporary possession. The words the English language borrows from other languages are not returned to those languages—that is nonsense! No, “borrow” in that context means “take from another source.” Likewise, in Exodus, the goods were from the Egyptians and passed on to the Hebrews. Friends, there is nothing hard to understand here unless we are biased and want the King James Bible to be mistaken. It should be quite easy to grasp, unless we do not like the Bible and have an agenda to make it be wrong. The Bible believer will believe the Bible, no matter which “scholar” it contradicts.

Remember, friends, if we encounter a problem when reading the Authorized Version King James Bible, the problem is not with the King James Bible. God’s Word is perfect and thus has no problems. There is only one of two possibilities: (1) Our understanding of the English language is limited, and we had better get a dictionary; or, (2) we have a spiritual problem that we are allowing to interfere with our comprehension. We need to toss out the vain speculations of men and hold to the precious words of God! We will save ourselves much deception and headache!

“And my speech and my preaching was not with enticing words of man’s wisdom, but in demonstration of the Spirit and of power: That your faith should not stand in the wisdom of men, but in the power of God…. Which things also we speak, not in the words which man’s wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Ghost teacheth; comparing spiritual things with spiritual. But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned” (1 Corinthians 2:4,5,13,14).

SUPPLEMENTAL: “LENT” AND EXODUS 12:36

Exodus 12:36 says: “And the LORD gave the people favour in the sight of the Egyptians, so that they lent unto them such things as they required. And they spoiled the Egyptians.” The word “lent” here should also be understood in light of our main Bible study. Yes, “lent” can mean, “granted use of on condition that it or its equivalent will be returned.” Howbeit, it can also carry the sense of “gave or contributed obligingly or helpfully.” An example is, “She lent help to her neighbor.” (Notice the primary definition of “lent”—as in to take and use temporarily—does not work here. You cannot return “help,” but help can be “lent!”) Yet another definition of “lent” is “to furnish or impart.” Considering the context of Exodus 12:36, this is the most descriptive meaning of the usage in that verse. These Egyptians were frantically furnishing the Israelites with goods in order to get them to leave!

Again, friends, there is nothing difficult here unless we have an agenda geared toward unfairly attacking the King James Bible. As a brother in Christ often says, “We should not get angry at our Bible for knowing more about our language than we do!”

Also see:
» Is “Easter” a mistranslation in the King James Bible in Acts 12:4?
» Should the King James read “Christ” or “Lord” in 2 Thessalonians 2:2?
» Is Matthew 27:9 a mistake?

BIBLE CONTRADICTIONS / CONFUSING VERSES SIMPLIFIED, BIBLE VERSIONS AND MANUSCRIPTS, Can you explain 1 Timothy 3:16?, Can you explain 1 Timothy 3:16?, Can you explain 1 Timothy 3:16?, Can you explain 1 Timothy 3:16?, GOD, GRACE (CHRISTIAN) LIVING

Can you explain 1 Timothy 3:16?

CAN YOU EXPLAIN 1 TIMOTHY 3:16?

by Shawn Brasseaux

People have confused 1 Timothy 3:16 for many, many years—centuries, actually. Just what makes it so controversial? Read it to see why: “And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.” What is this talking about? There has been so much discussion about it but very little light has been shed. In this Bible study, we purpose to make the truths of God’s Word as plain and simple as humanly possible concerning 1 Timothy 3:16. To the Scriptures!

I. FIRST TIMOTHY 3:16 AND TEXTUAL CRITICISM

First Timothy 3:16 is one of the major problem verses in the modern English versions and their underlying manuscripts. Our King James Bible says, “God was manifest in the flesh….” Most modern English versions, however, have a general reading of “He” or “He who” or “Who” where our KJV has “God.” (With no Greek authority, some modern versions read “Christ!”) Why do modern English versions read differently here? The answer is two-fold.

The first and foremost factor is a textual issue. It is not that the new-version translators are unskilled in translating. The problem is they are translating a depraved (corrupt) Greek text. The King James Bible’s underlying Greek text, the Textus Receptus, reads “theos” (rendered “God”). However, the modern English version manuscripts, the Alexandrian text, read “os” (“which” or “who”—which is syntactical nonsense). Modern English versions that read “Christ” are interpreting the passage without manuscript support. The scribes/copyists of the modern-version Alexandrian manuscripts altered (probably intentionally) the correct Greek word, theos, into os. Notice how this extremely subtle change involved nothing more than dropping the first three letters (“the-”). With the omission of these few Greek letters, the Bible text was greatly damaged. (And these perverted manuscripts are heralded as “better” texts!!)

Secondly, there is a copyright issue. Modern English versions must read differently from each other in order to have their unique copyrights. Verses must be reworded if the text is to be considered distinct from other modern English versions. Modern English translators are forced to change the wording of 1 Timothy 3:16 so as to keep their respective works separate. This is why some versions have “He who,” others have “He,” some have “Who,” and others have “Christ.” The New King James Version, surprisingly, actually agrees with the King James Bible by retaining “God.”

People who do not like to recognize Jesus Christ’s deity prefer the reading of 1 Timothy 3:16 in the modern English versions. Only unbelievers and heretics would be comfortable with removing “God” and replacing it with “He,” “He who,” or “Who.” Now we understand why the Jehovah’s Witness New World Translation does not use the King James Bible Greek text! The Jehovah’s Witnesses see no problem calling Christ Jesus “He” or “He who” or “Who”—they just refuse to call Him “God!” (Anyone who dismisses this textual problem as “minor” has a heart problem. They do not have the sense to understand their Bible should not have mistakes in the first place!)

II. FIRST TIMOTHY 3:16, IN CONTEXT

Like so many, I once assumed 1 Timothy 3:16 referred to Jesus Christ’s earthly ministry. Friend, this is probably how you have often heard this verse taught. If you read study Bible notes, commentaries, and listen to preachers and teachers, invariably, you will see they approach 1 Timothy 3:16 in this manner. However, if you look at the context, there is nothing about Christ’s earthly ministry. What is the context of 1 Timothy chapter 3? Or, better yet, what is the context of the whole book of 1 Timothy? The context of the epistle is the organization and administration of the local church assembly. Chapter 3 begins with the office of the bishop, then discusses the office of the deacon, and finally mentions the assembly (collectively).

Our first step in understanding 1 Timothy 3:16 is to read and believe the two previous verses: “[14] These things write I unto thee, hoping to come unto thee shortly. [15] But if I tarry long, that thou mayest know how thou oughtest to behave thyself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth.” If you get nothing else out of this article, friend, please remember not to isolate verse 16 from verses 14 and 15!

What is “the house of God?” What is “the church of the living God?” Church tradition causes most people to say “the house of God” is a physical building. However, the Bible says God does not dwell in temples made with hands (Acts 17:24). Rather than speculating, we will let the Bible define for us this term “the house of God.”

Ephesians 2:19-22 says: “[19] Now therefore ye are no more strangers and foreigners, but fellowcitizens with the saints, and of the household of God; [20] And are built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone; [21] In whom all the building fitly framed together groweth unto an holy temple in the Lord: [22] In whom ye also are builded together for an habitation of God through the Spirit.”

We are the temple of the Holy Ghost, as 1 Corinthians chapter 6 says: “[19] What? know ye not that your body is the temple of the Holy Ghost which is in you, which ye have of God, and ye are not your own? [20] For ye are bought with a price: therefore glorify God in your body, and in your spirit, which are God’s.” Also, 1 Corinthians chapter 3: “[16] Know ye not that ye are the temple of God, and that the Spirit of God dwelleth in you? [17] If any man defile the temple of God, him shall God destroy; for the temple of God is holy, which temple ye are.”

According to the Bible text, the “house of God” of 1 Timothy 3:15 is individual Christians. It is also the local assembly of these Christians gathering in fellowship. We Christian believers, we are the house of God, the temple of God. Friend, do not let religion rob you of this truth by encouraging you to refer to some manmade structure today as “the house [or temple] of God!”

When we come to verse 16, we simply carry the thought over from verse 15 (most Bible readers fail to do this and thus misinterpret the verse). Verse 16 is still talking about the local group of Christians, or you could even say all of the Church the Body of Christ. If you look closely, the order of events of verse 16 does not match the order of Christ’s earthly life and ministry. However, that order of events perfectly matches our life and earthly ministry as members of the Body of Christ. We now dissect 1 Timothy 3:16: “And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.”

III. FIRST TIMOTHY 3:16, EXPOUNDED

A. “AND WITHOUT CONTROVERSY…”

“And.” Let me remind you again the opening “and” links verse 16 to verse 15. Verses 14 and 15 again: “[14] These things write I unto thee, hoping to come unto thee shortly. [15] But if I tarry long, that thou mayest know how thou oughtest to behave thyself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth. [16] And [a continuation of verse 15] without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.” Verse 16 continues the thought mentioned in verse 15. The truth 1 Timothy 3:16 sets forth concerns the Church the Body of Christ of verse 15!

“Without controversy.” The Apostle Paul will reveal, profess, and proclaim, what is undoubtedly one of the most awesome teachings in the whole Bible. (Although, as we already pointed out, this verse has been highly “controversial” because people refuse to believe it as it exists in the proper Greek and English Bible texts! Regardless of their great efforts to deface the Word of God, these people cannot change what the original Bible says.)

B. “GREAT IS THE MYSTERY OF GODLINESS: GOD WAS MANIFEST IN THE FLESH…”

Any Bible student knows that Jesus Christ being God was no mystery (secret). Various “Old Testament” prophetic verses all predicted—hundreds of years in advance—that Messiah would be God in human flesh. We will briefly survey some examples.

Isaiah 9:6-7, written 700 B.C.: “[6] For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace. [7] Of the increase of his government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of David, and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish it with judgment and with justice from henceforth even for ever. The zeal of the LORD of hosts will perform this.” (Messiah holds the titles of “The Mighty God” and “The Everlasting Father.” Could Messiah’s equality with Father God be any clearer?)

Isaiah 35:4, written 700 B.C.: “Say to them that are of a fearful heart, Be strong, fear not: behold, your God will come with vengeance, even God with a recompence; he will come and save you.” (In light of verses 5-6, this is a reference to Messiah’s earthly ministry. Messiah is called “God” here.)

Micah 5:2, written 750 B.C.: “But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting.” (This is a verse about Messiah Jesus, according to Matthew 2:4-6. Micah 5:2 is perverted in modern in English versions, with “everlasting” [a reference to Messiah’s deity] is changed to “ancient times.”)

Malachi 3:1, written 400 B.C.: “Behold, I will send my messenger, and he shall prepare the way before me: and the LORD, whom ye seek, shall suddenly come to his temple, even the messenger of the covenant, whom ye delight in: behold, he shall come, saith the LORD of hosts.” (The “me” here is JEHOVAH, and really it is Jesus Christ whom John the Baptist preceded—see Mark 1:1-3. Mark 1:2 is perverted in modern English versions.)

The above verses indicate Messiah’s deity was not a secret. BUT, 1 Timothy 3:16 says “God manifest in human flesh” WAS a secret. “And without controversy great is the mystery [secret] of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh….” In other words, God being manifested in the flesh in this verse, the truth of 1 Timothy 3:16, was hidden from the “Old Testament” prophets. There is only one logical conclusion—1 Timothy 3:16 discusses something other than Messiah Jesus’ earthly ministry. Perhaps this startles you, but rest assured, it will become clearer as we progress. What type of fleshly manifestation of God is Paul mentioning here? (Hint: Recall the theme of the chapter, or the theme of the book!) “God manifest in human flesh” is a description of us, the Church the Body of Christ! We, corporately, are “godliness” (“God-likeness”). After all, it is God’s life in us! This is the “mystery of godliness.”

Second Corinthians chapter 4: “[7] But we have this treasure in earthen vessels, that the excellency of the power may be of God, and not of us. [8] We are troubled on every side, yet not distressed; we are perplexed, but not in despair; [9] Persecuted, but not forsaken; cast down, but not destroyed; [10] Always bearing about in the body the dying of the Lord Jesus, that the life also of Jesus might be made manifest in our body. [11] For we which live are always delivered unto death for Jesus’ sake, that the life also of Jesus might be made manifest in our mortal flesh.” In the lives of Christians, the “life of Jesus” is manifested for all to see! By the working of the Holy Spirit who indwells us, the life of Jesus Christ (who is God manifested in human flesh) is revealed, or made known, in our lives. The Holy Spirit produces the life of Jesus Christ in the lives of the members of the Church the Body of Christ.

Galatians 2:20 tells us: “I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me.” And, Philippians 1:21: “For to me to live is Christ, and to die is gain.” Finally, Colossians 3:4: “When Christ, who is our life, shall appear, then shall ye also appear with him in glory.”

Recall that the group of believers we know of as the Church the Body of Christ was kept secret from the “Old Testament” prophets. God manifesting His life in and through a group of believing Jews and Gentiles in one Body of Christ, that was most definitely a secret (mystery) not revealed until Paul’s apostleship and ministry. Read about “the mystery of [the Body of] Christ” in Ephesians 3:1-9. We do not learn this secret until the Pauline epistles, Romans through Philemon.

We let the Holy Spirit tell us in Ephesians chapter 9: “[1] For this cause I Paul, the prisoner of Jesus Christ for you Gentiles, [2] If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward: [3] How that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery; (as I wrote afore in few words, [4] Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ) [5] Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit; [6] That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel: [7] Whereof I was made a minister, according to the gift of the grace of God given unto me by the effectual working of his power. [8] Unto me, who am less than the least of all saints, is this grace given, that I should preach among the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ; [9] And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ….”

C. “JUSTIFIED IN THE SPIRIT…”

“Justified in the Spirit” would make no sense referring to Jesus Christ. He needed no justification because He was God. Remember, the context is the Body of Christ.

We are justified, declared righteous in God’s sight, by the shed blood of Jesus Christ on Calvary (Romans 3:25-26). The moment we trust Jesus Christ as our personal Saviour, the Holy Spirit puts us into the Body of Christ (1 Corinthians 12:13). We thus share Christ’s identity, His righteousness. We are surrounded by the power of the Holy Spirit because He makes Christ’s life real in our lives. Romans 8:9 says: “But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.” Rather than being “in the flesh,” we are “in the Spirit.” That means the Spirit of God lives in us—remember, we are His “temple.” That is our identity. He has applied the righteous nature of Jesus Christ to our account, in contrast to the sin nature we have in Adam. That new nature in Christ produces God’s life, enabling God’s life to be manifested in ours. Again, “God manifest in the flesh.”

Galatians 3:3: “Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now made perfect by the flesh?” And, Galatians 5:16: “This I say then, Walk in the Spirit, and ye shall not fulfil the lust of the flesh.” Galatians 5:25 also: “If we live in the Spirit, let us also walk in the Spirit.” We can also look at Colossians 1:8: “Who also declared unto us your love in the Spirit.” Again, “in the Spirit” is our position, and when we walk in that sanctified position, God’s life is manifested (practical, daily living). God’s life is not manifested in our lives when we walk in our resources, our own strength (legalism instead of grace living). When we walk apart from our identity in Christ, sin will dominate our lives.

D. “SEEN OF ANGELS…”

While angels watched Jesus Christ in His earthly ministry, this is not a reference to His earthly ministry because, as we have said already, the context does not support it. Remember, angels watch us as well. First Corinthians 4:9: “For I think that God hath set forth us the apostles last, as it were appointed to death: for we are made a spectacle unto the world, and to angels, and to men.” And, 1 Corinthians 11:10: “For this cause ought the woman to have power on her head because of the angels.” Also, Ephesians 3:10: “To the intent that now unto the principalities and powers in heavenly places might be known by the church the manifold wisdom of God,” Finally, 1 Timothy 5:21: “I charge thee before God, and the Lord Jesus Christ, and the elect angels, that thou observe these things without preferring one before another, doing nothing by partiality.”

When we realize that angels are watching us in our daily activities, then that will surely change our behavior. Think of the millions of angels above observing us down here. Are they seeing the life of God in human flesh on display in our lives? Are they witnessing the grace of God transforming lives? Or, are they seeing sinful people misbehaving while also claiming to value and follow God’s Word? Something to think about, my friend, something major to think about!

E. “PREACHED UNTO THE GENTILES…”

The message of “God manifest in the flesh” (the Body of Christ) being preached to Gentiles would certainly not be true until we come to the Apostle Paul’s ministry. If you are familiar with the Bible rightly divided, then you know Paul’s ministry was to Gentiles, all the nations, not just to Israel.

Paul wrote in Romans 11:13: “For I speak to you Gentiles, inasmuch as I am the apostle of the Gentiles, I magnify mine office….” Also, the ascended Jesus Christ told Paul in Acts 26:17-18: “[17] Delivering thee from the people, and from the Gentiles, unto whom now I send thee, [18] To open their eyes, and to turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins, and inheritance among them which are sanctified by faith that is in me.” And, Paul wrote in 1 Timothy 2:5-7: “[5] For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; [6] Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time. [7] Whereunto I am ordained a preacher, and an apostle, (I speak the truth in Christ, and lie not;) a teacher of the Gentiles in faith and verity.”

We can also refer to Titus 2:11: “For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men….” “All men” is a reference to Paul preaching to all nations. Also, the Holy Spirit led Paul to write in Romans 15:15-16: “[15] Nevertheless, brethren, I have written the more boldly unto you in some sort, as putting you in mind, because of the grace that is given to me of God, [16] That I should be the minister of Jesus Christ to the Gentiles, ministering the gospel of God, that the offering up of the Gentiles might be acceptable, being sanctified by the Holy Ghost.” Another reference is Ephesians 3:9: “And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ….” Finally, Paul penned in 2 Timothy 4:17: “Notwithstanding the Lord stood with me, and strengthened me; that by me the preaching might be fully known, and that all the Gentiles might hear: and I was delivered out of the mouth of the lion.”

In stark contrast to Paul’s ministry, Jesus Christ’s earthly ministry was not to Gentiles—it was only to Jews. The Lord Jesus Christ Himself said to the 12 apostles in Matthew 10:5-7, for example: “[5] These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not: [6] But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. [7] And as ye go, preach, saying, The kingdom of heaven is at hand.” He told a Gentile woman in Matthew 15:24: “I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.” And, we can also look at John 4:22: “Ye worship ye know not what: we know what we worship: for salvation is of the Jews.” Finally, Romans 15:8 affirms: “Now I say that Jesus Christ was a minister of the circumcision [Israel] for the truth of God, to confirm the promises made unto the fathers….”

F. “BELIEVED ON IN THE WORLD…”

Again, this would not be true of Jesus Christ’s earthly ministry. “God manifest in the flesh” (the Body of Christ) was not believed on in the world until Jesus Christ was preached “in the world.” As briefly noted earlier, Paul’s ministry goal was to reach “all nations.” Romans 1:5 highlights his ministry: “By whom we have received grace and apostleship, for obedience to the faith among all nations, for his name.” And, Romans 16:26 serves as confirmation: “But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith.”

The Holy Spirit led Paul to write in Colossians, chapter 1: “[4] Since we heard of your faith in Christ Jesus, and of the love which ye have to all the saints, [5] For the hope which is laid up for you in heaven, whereof ye heard before in the word of the truth of the gospel; [6] Which is come unto you, as it is in all the world; and bringeth forth fruit, as it doth also in you, since the day ye heard of it, and knew the grace of God in truth….” Not only was Paul, through the power of the Holy Spirit, preaching the Gospel of the Grace of God to “all the world,” that Gospel message was “bring[ing] forth fruit” in all the world. That is, people believed it, trusted it, and thus gained a hope in heaven because of Jesus Christ’s finished crosswork.

G. “RECEIVED UP INTO GLORY…”

While commonly assumed to be a reference to Jesus Christ’s ascension into heaven in Acts chapter 1, this is actually in reference to the Rapture, when the Church the Body of Christ finishes its earthly tasks (previous clauses of the verse) and is taken into heaven to serve Father God there. You may read 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18, Ephesians 2:6-7, Philippians 3:20-21, 2 Thessalonians 2:1, 2 Corinthians 5:1, Colossians 3:1-4, 1 Corinthians 15:51-55, et cetera). The life that God manifested in our mortal flesh here on earth will be brought to fruition in the heavenly places. His life, as lived on earth through us, will be put on display throughout the universe through us.

Unfortunately, time and space do not permit us to quote and expound Romans 8:18-25, Ephesians 1:20-23, 1 Corinthians 15:34-58, Colossians 3:1-4, and 2 Timothy 2:10-13. These are some of the main passages that highlight God using us (the Church the Body of Christ) in the ages to come to reflect His life in the heavenly places. Please read and study them on your own time. They will help you immensely in answering the question concerning what we will do in heaven for eternity.

IV. CONCLUSION

Some believe that 1 Timothy 3:16 was an “early Christian hymn.” This speculation does not concern us. What concerns us is that we properly identify the person or people in the verse. It is not the earthly ministry of Jesus Christ Himself. Rather, it applies to the earthly ministry of the Body of Christ.

Christ ascended, then He was preached unto Gentiles, and then He was believed on in the world. First Timothy 3:16 has that order reversed—preaching unto Gentiles, believing on in the world, and then ascending into heaven. Could it be clearer, dear friends? The verse is describing the life of the Body of Christ (today’s program) and not Jesus Christ in the books of Matthew through John. The context of 1 Timothy chapter 3, the theme of 1 Timothy itself, and verses 14 and 15—they all demand 1 Timothy 3:16 apply to the Church the Body of Christ. First Timothy 3:16 is a succinct summary of everything about the Body of Christ, from its earthly formation to its heavenly destiny.

“And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.”

Also see:
» Why do some Christians persistently behave like lost people?
» Is grace a “license to sin?”
» Are all Christians “ambassadors,” or just Paul and his ministry companions?

“Epistle” and “letter”—same or different?, “Epistle” and “letter”—same or different?, BIBLE VERSIONS AND MANUSCRIPTS, JUST ASKING / CURIOUS QUESTIONS

“Epistle” and “letter”—same or different?

“EPISTLE” AND “LETTER”—SAME OR DIFFERENT?

by Shawn Brasseaux

The Greek word epistolē appears 24 times in 23 verses found in the King James Bible’s “New Testament” Scriptures. On 15 occasions, it is rendered “epistle(s).” It is translated “letter(s)” the remaining nine times. While they are the same in Greek, there is a difference in English. This Bible study will highlight that distinction.

Once, while I was speaking to one church member about “Paul’s epistles,” she stopped me and asked me what an “epistle” was. I was utterly amazed that, here she was, attending a so-called “Bible-believing church,” and she had never heard this Bible term before. Evidently, her pastor and her Bible teacher had never used that term. Her modern English “bible” version did not have that word either. It used the word “letter” instead. (Modern English translations of the Scriptures have robbed readers in numerous ways. Here is but another example of them omitting more precise terms and replacing them with generalized ones.)

Make no mistake about it, dear friends. There is a difference between an epistle and a letter, so these terms cannot always be used interchangeably. A letter is a form of written communication. It can be for personal/pleasure reasons, business reasons, and so on. However, a letter does not necessarily include teaching. An epistle is a letter, yes, but a very special kind of letter. All epistles are letters, but not all letters are epistles. Consider this easy example. While all instruction manuals are books, not all books are instruction manuals. By changing the noun from “books” to the restrictive “instruction manuals,” we are eliminating novels, phone books, and all other non-educational reading materials. “Epistles” limits the letters to educational resources. An epistle is doctrinal or instructional in nature—a letter from a teacher to a student.

When people talk about the so-called “letters” of the New Testament Scriptures, what they really mean is “epistles.” Those books are not merely friendship letters, although they do contain personal greetings in their openings and closings. More than anything, however, they are doctrinal works with tremendous teaching value. They contain doctrine meant to educate their readers concerning the purpose and plan of God. Epistles contain God’s various instructions to their recipients—who they are to Him, what He has done (or will do) to and/or for them, what they should believe, how they should behave, their destiny in God’s program, and so on.

With that said, we will look at the King James Bible’s various uses of the word epistolē, and we will notice how it can function as a general or specific noun:

  • Acts 9:2: “And desired of him letters to Damascus to the synagogues, that if he found any of this way, whether they were men or women, he might bring them bound unto Jerusalem.” (“Letters” here is general, as in “permission slips,” so the more specific “epistles” is unnecessary. No teaching is involved.)
  • Acts 15:30: “So when they were dismissed, they came to Antioch: and when they had gathered the multitude together, they delivered the epistle:” (This “epistle” was more than a letter; it was doctrinal, containing instructions. Leaders of the Jerusalem Church had written this to Paul’s Gentile converts, expecting them to abide by its words.)
  • Acts 22:5: “As also the high priest doth bear me witness, and all the estate of the elders: from whom also I received letters unto the brethren, and went to Damascus, to bring them which were there bound unto Jerusalem, for to be punished.” (As with Acts 9:2, “letters” here is general. They are “permission slips,” making the more specific “epistles” unnecessary. No teaching is involved here, either.)
  • Acts 23:25: “And he wrote a letter after this manner:” (“Letter” here is general, so the more specific “epistle” is unnecessary. It is interesting to note that this “letter” is later called an “epistle” [verse 33]—see next bullet point. This shows us that, on some occasions, “epistle” and “letter” are interchangeable. However, please be mindful that this is the exception rather than the rule.)
  • Acts 23:33: “Who, when they came to Caesarea, and delivered the epistle to the governor, presented Paul also before him.” (The more specific “epistle” is needed because the governor is being educated, brought up-to-date, concerning Paul’s predicament. He has read the letter and been informed. While not in the Greek, our 1611 KJV translators then added the words “the letter” in verse 34 to complete the thought.)
  • Romans 16:22: “I Tertius, who wrote this epistle, salute you in the Lord.” (The more precise “epistle” is necessary because Romans is a doctrinal book, not just a casual letter filled with “chit-chat.”)
  • 1 Corinthians 5:9: “I wrote unto you in an epistle not to company with fornicators:” (Like Romans above, the more specific term “epistle” is necessary here since Paul’s letter to Corinth had doctrinal content, teaching material.)
  • 1 Corinthians 16:3: “And when I come, whomsoever ye shall approve by your letters, them will I send to bring your liberality unto Jerusalem.” (The general word “letters” is sufficient here because these are not teaching books, merely “permission slips” concerning who will take up a collection for the poor saints in Jerusalem.)
  • 2 Corinthians 3:1: “Do we begin again to commend ourselves? or need we, as some others, epistles of commendation to you, or letters of commendation from you?” (The more specific “epistles” is necessary here since they, had they existed, would have been letters teaching on Paul’s apostleship. They would have been more than letters, though. They would have been what we would call “teaching letters,” or precisely, “epistles.”
  • 2 Corinthians 3:2: “Ye are our epistle written in our hearts, known and read of all men:” (The more exact “epistle” is necessary here because the Corinthians, in their behavior, were communicating doctrine to their observers.)
  • 2 Corinthians 3:3: “Forasmuch as ye are manifestly declared to be the epistle of Christ ministered by us, written not with ink, but with the Spirit of the living God; not in tables of stone, but in fleshy tables of the heart.” (The more exact “epistle” is necessary here because the Corinthians, in their behavior, were communicating doctrine to those who observed them.)
  • 2 Corinthians 7:8: “For though I made you sorry with a letter, I do not repent, though I did repent: for I perceive that the same epistle hath made you sorry, though it were but for a season.” (“Letter” here means it is a written statement Paul had sent to them. The more exact “epistle” is necessary in that it instructed the Corinthians to the extent it made them “sorry” of their disobedience.)
  • 2 Corinthians 10:9: “That I may not seem as if I would terrify you by letters.” (The general word “letters” is all that is needed. There is nothing here about instruction.)
  • 2 Corinthians 10:10: “For his letters, say they, are weighty and powerful; but his bodily presence is weak, and his speech contemptible.” (Again, the general word “letters” is sufficient. No instruction here.)
  • 2 Corinthians 10:11: “Let such an one think this, that, such as we are in word by letters when we are absent, such will we be also in deed when we are present.” (Once more, the general word “letters” is enough. No instruction is here.)
  • Colossians 4:16: “And when this epistle is read among you, cause that it be read also in the church of the Laodiceans; and that ye likewise read the epistle from Laodicea.” (Like Romans, earlier, Colossians is a special letter, a teaching letter—an “epistle.”)
  • 1 Thessalonians 5:27: “I charge you by the Lord that this epistle be read unto all the holy brethren.” (Like Romans and Colossians, earlier, 1 Thessalonians is a special letter, a teaching letter—an “epistle.”)
  • 2 Thessalonians 2:2: “That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.” (Once more, the general word “letter” is enough. It was a written communication to which someone had forged the Apostle Paul’s name.)
  • 2 Thessalonians 2:15: “Therefore, brethren, stand fast, and hold the traditions which ye have been taught, whether by word, or our epistle.” (Here, notice the link between being “taught” and an “epistle.” Paul’s “epistles” were instructional materials.)
  • 2 Thessalonians 3:14: “And if any man obey not our word by this epistle, note that man, and have no company with him, that he may be ashamed.” (Like Romans, Colossians, and 1 Thessalonians, the Book of 2 Thessalonians is also a teaching letter—an “epistle.”)
  • 2 Thessalonians 3:17: “The salutation of Paul with mine own hand, which is the token in every epistle: so I write.” (Again, Paul’s “epistles” were teaching materials.)
  • 2 Peter 3:1: “This second epistle, beloved, I now write unto you; in both which I stir up your pure minds by way of remembrance:” (And, again, Peter’s “epistles” were teaching materials.)
  • 2 Peter 3:16: “As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.” (As the Holy Spirit led Peter to affirm, Paul’s “epistles” were teaching materials.)

CONCLUSION

While “epistle” and “letter” are the same Greek word (epistolē), the English language allows us to appreciate a nuance. All epistles are letters, but not all letters are epistles. An epistle is a very special letter: it is doctrinal, didactic, or instructional in nature. Remember, an epistle is a letter from teacher to student. It would be more than a “Hi, how are you? I am doing well…” letter. An epistle would be advice on how to think about a certain topic, how to understand not just terms and definitions but the actual concepts of that topic, and how to apply that knowledge to life and/or other disciplines.

Although modern-English-version people have grown accustomed to using the word “letter,” the more precise term is “epistle.” When referring to the Bible books such as Romans, Hebrews, Philemon, or Jude, it would be beneficial to our hearers if we called them “epistles.” They are “the Epistle to the Romans” (not “the Letter to the Romans”), “the Epistle to the Hebrews” (not “the Letter to the Hebrews”), “the Epistle to Philemon” (not “the Letter to Philemon”), and “the Epistle of Jude” (not “the Letter of Jude”).

Now, we must answer this anticipated objection: “Brother Shawn, you said it yourself. Since the modern English versions are so common, almost no one knows what an ‘epistle’ is anyway. Should we not just use ‘letter?’” Friend, let me remind you that our job as Bible believers is to teach the Bible to those who find it confusing. Before we go around teaching others, we had better know the material ourselves! We simply use the term “epistle,” and then define it for our audience. (The job of the teacher is to teach!!!) We tell them, “An epistle is a letter of instruction, doctrine, or teaching.” We need not change words in the King James Bible we find difficult or obsolete. We leave them where they are in the Bible, and we define them! Let us not get angry with our Bible because it uses words we do not know. Our King James Bible will teach us much—not only about God’s thoughts, but about our own English language. I mean, come on, my friends. We are going to teach our audience a new word—“epistle”—and, by doing so, we will be an “epistle” (teaching device) ourselves!

NOTICE: The 2016 Slidell Grace Bible Conference is less than a month away! This is our 5th annual conference, just outside of New Orleans, December 2-4. Speakers are Richard Jordan, John Smith, and I (Shawn Brasseaux). Please see this flyer for more details: https://arcministries.files.wordpress.com/2016/10/2016-slidell-gbc.pdf. We would love to have you join us!

Also see:
» Does it matter which Bible version I use?
» Why do I get nothing out of the Bible when I read it?
» How does one know if he or she is maturing in the Word of God?

ANGELS & DEVILS, BIBLE VERSIONS AND MANUSCRIPTS, Should we use the word “demons?”, Should we use the word “demons?”

Should we use the word “demons?”

SHOULD WE USE THE WORD “DEMONS?” ARE THEY THE SAME AS DEVILS?

by Shawn Brasseaux

One of the most frequent charges laid against the King James Bible is its usage of the word “devils” instead of “demons.” It is argued that there is only one devil, so we should not call his associates “devils.” This argument is used to “beat up” the King James Bible and those who use it. As always, before we glibly believe what the Bible critics tell us, we will investigate the matter for ourselves. Are our King James translators wrong, or are the King James critics wrong?

Vine’s Concise Dictionary of Bible Words says the following under the entry for “Devil, Devilish:”

“diabolos (1228), ‘an accuser; a slanderer’ (from diaballo, ‘to accuse, to malign’), is one of the names of Satan. From it the English word ‘Devil’ is derived, and should be applied only to Satan, as a proper name. daimon, ‘a demon,’ is frequently, but wrongly translated ‘devil;’ it should always be translated ‘demon,’ as in the RV margin. There is one ‘Devil,’ there are many demons.”

As you can see, in the realm of Bible “scholarship,” the King James Bible is heavily frowned upon for using “devils” instead of “demons.” Did you notice how Vine’s referred to the “RV?” It is the perverted Revised Version of 1881 that apostates Westcott and Hort produced in England to “de-throne” the King James Bible. The corrupt Greek New Testament and textual concepts of Westcott and Hort have dominated Bible “scholarship” for over 100 years. As you can see, the works of Westcott and Hort are often used to challenge—“correct”—the Authorized Version King James Bible. Whenever you hear or read someone offering a “better reading” or “better translation” than what is found in the King James Bible, just remember they are repeating the worthless speculations of unbelievers!

The word “demon” is not a translation but rather a transliteration of the Greek term daimon (δαίμων). Since the modern English versions use “demon” and “demons” throughout their texts, no one teaching from them will use the term “devils.” Consequently, the audiences will rarely hear the term “devils.” All these people have become accustomed to using and hearing “demons,” but that does not necessarily make it right. For years, I operated under the influence of modern English versions. I used “demon” and “demons” throughout my early Bible studies. Several years ago, however, someone drew this to my attention and I quit using such non-biblical terms. The correct word is “devil/s” not “demon/s.” Let me explain why we should note this.

In mythology, a “demon” is defined as “a god, or a subordinate deity, as the genius of a place or a person’s attendant spirit.” According to Thayer’s Greek Lexicon, daimon is defined as: “in Grk. auth. a god, a goddess; an inferior deity, whether good or bad.”

Vine’s Concise Dictionary of Bible Words has the following under the entry for “Demon, Demoniac:”

“A. Nouns. 1. daimon (1142), ‘a demon,’ signified, among pagan Greeks, an inferior deity, whether good or bad. In the NT it denotes ‘ an evil spirit.’ It is used in Matt. 8:31, mistranslated ‘devils.’
2. daimonion (1140), not a diminutive of daimon, No. 1, but the neuter of the adjective daimonios, pertaining to a demon, is also mistranslated ‘devil,’ ‘devils.’ In Acts 17:18, it denotes an inferior pagan deity.”

As these Bible scholars freely confess, a “demon” can be bad or good. If someone is new to the English language, especially small children, “demon” is a difficult word to define. However, if we just leave “devil” in our King James Bible, it will be quite easy to see that a devil in the Bible is always bad, always evil—notice the letters D-E–V–I–L. To do as the modern translators have done (including NKJV), and change the King James “devils” to “demons” some six-dozen or seven-dozen times, is to water down the Bible. God’s Word is made less clear. So, in effect, when the modern versions say the “King James is so hard to read,” they have to admit the King James is actually much easier than they allege! Their “pet” modern English versions reader harder in the case of “demons” and “devils!”

Enjoy our Bible Q&A studies? You can support us by donating securely here: https://www.paypal.me/ShawnBrasseaux. Thanks!

Also see:
» How does Satan operate today?
» Can you explain Genesis 6:1-4?
» Can you explain 1 Peter 3:18-21?

BIBLE VERSIONS AND MANUSCRIPTS, JUST ASKING / CURIOUS QUESTIONS, What made the crucified thief repent?, What made the crucified thief repent?

What made the crucified thief repent?

WHAT MADE THE CRUCIFIED THIEF REPENT?

by Shawn Brasseaux

At the beginning of the crucifixion, both thieves (or malefactors, criminals) mocked Jesus Christ hanging on the cross. But then, one thief had a drastic change in mind and heart. Why?

We begin reading at Luke 23:33: “And when they were come to the place, which is called Calvary, there they crucified him, and the malefactors, one on the right hand, and the other on the left.” By the way, you must have a King James Bible to read of “Calvary” here. Modern English versions remove the term—you cannot sing or teach about “Calvary’s cross” if your Bible never says anything about it!

During Jesus’ crucifixion, He was subjected to much taunting and laughter. The common Jews mocked Him, so did their religious leaders and the Roman soldiers. Even the two crucified thieves criticized Him as a fraud. “The thieves also, which were crucified with him cast the same in his teeth” (Matthew 27:44).

Verses 34-39 of Luke chapter 23 continue: “[34] Then said Jesus, Father, forgive them; for they know not what they do. And they parted his raiment, and cast lots. [35] And the people stood beholding. And the rulers also with them derided [ridiculed] him, saying, He saved others; let him save himself, if he be Christ, the chosen of God. [36] And the soldiers also mocked him, coming to him, and offering him vinegar, [37] And saying, If thou be the king of the Jews, save thyself. [38] And a superscription also was written over him in letters of Greek, and Latin, and Hebrew, THIS IS THE KING OF THE JEWS. [39] And one of the malefactors which were hanged railed on him, saying, If thou be Christ, save thyself and us.”

Later, one of the thieves had a change in heart: “[40] But the other answering rebuked him, saying, Dost not thou fear God, seeing thou art in the same condemnation? [41] And we indeed justly; for we receive the due reward of our deeds: but this man hath done nothing amiss.” Evidently, the thief read the superscription and believed it, and Jesus Christ guaranteed his soul salvation! Verses 42 and 43 conclude: “And he said unto Jesus, Lord, remember me when thou comest into thy kingdom. And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise!” The convicted thief, being nailed to a cross himself, unable to do anything else, saw the sign over Jesus’ head—“THIS IS THE KING OF THE JEWS.” So, he cried to out to Jesus in faith: “Lord, remember me when thou comest into thy kingdom!” The thief saw and trusted Jesus as “King” and “Lord” indeed.

SUPPLEMENTAL: THE MODERN-VERSION PERVERSION OF LUKE 23:42

People often ask why we make such a “big deal” about using the King James Bible. We already saw how modern English versions remove the word “Calvary” from Luke 23:33. This is significant because that term “Calvary” no longer has a Biblical basis; it can no longer be rightly called a “Scriptural” term. Do you see how dangerous the modern-version issue is? But, there is something more serious in the modern versions concerning this passage. Most never catch their error. I will gladly expose them for you, my friend.

The modern versions, following their handful of underlying corrupted Greek manuscripts from Alexandria (Egypt), do not contain the title “Lord” (kurie) in Luke 23:42. Rather than the King James expression (supported in most Greek manuscripts), “He said unto Jesus, Lord, remember me…,” the thief in a modern version says, “Jesus, remember me…” (NASB, NIV, HCSB, Amplified, ESV, NLT, NRSV, The Voice, et cetera). That is, the modern English versions—so-called “bibles”—have removed a reference to Jesus being “Lord!” Furthermore, they have hidden the thief’s testimony, his acknowledgement of Jesus not simply being “King” but also the “Lord.” This is just one of the dozens of places where the modern versions do this. They hide the correlation that the Jesus of the New Testament is the “Lord” (JEHOVAH) of the Old Testament. Since these Bible editors and translators have such a low opinion of the Lord Jesus Christ, why would we want to use their worthless manuscripts and useless books as the bases for our lives? Once again, a simple verse shows us that the King James Bible is theologically superior to all the modern English versions and all their manuscripts combined!!!!

Also see:
» Were there five crosses on Calvary?
» Why does the Bible say Jesus was hanged on a “tree?”
» Why did Jesus forbid others from preaching that He was Christ?